Page 1 of 90
30 May 2026
CEA EXAM 2026/2027 TEST BANK WITH 500 EXAM
PREP QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALE/ CEA FNP TEST 2026 TEST BANK (100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS)..
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows
a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib
spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the
window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - correct answer-Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe
lingula.
Your irate patient on involuntary hold due to risk of harm to themself or others says they are going
to "kill you when you leave work after they get discharged". This statement is an example of
which of the following? *None of these options
*Emotional battery
*Verbal battery
*Verbal assault - correct answer-Verbal assault
Rationale: Assault refers to the risk of a harm to others, whereas battery refers to the actual act of
that harm.
Patients presenting with globe rupture should be sent to immediate surgery due to which of the
following reasons?
*Loss of vision is worse if surgery is immediate
*Delay in surgery can increase incidence of choroidal hemorrhage
*Pain associated to the traumatic event is less when surgery is performed immediately
, Page 2 of 90
30 May 2026
*Rapid surgery can increase incidence of endophthalmitis - correct answer-Delay in surgery can
increase incidence of choroidal hemorrhage
Rationale: Delay in surgery can increase incidence of both choroidal hemorrhage as well as
endophthalmitis. Loss of vision is likely less if surgical intervention is immediate for the same reasons
as above and pain due to the trauma itself has no bearing on surgical timing.
A 60-year-old man presents with persistent hoarseness for the past 3 months. He has a history of
smoking. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
*Prescribe voice rest and hydration
*Referral to an otolaryngologist for laryngoscopy
*Advise gargling with warm salt water
*Start a course of oral corticosteroids - correct answer-Referral to an otolaryngologist for
laryngoscopy
Rationale: Suspicion of malignancy should be considered in individuals with risk factors such as
smoking presenting with unexplained hoarseness lasting more than two weeks.
Your patient presents with unilateral eye pain after a workplace exposure to a caustic substance.
Which of the following techniques is useful to assist in removal of the agent?
*Flushing with a Morgan lens
*Slit lap evaluation
*Fluorescein staining
*Topical anesthesia with lidocaine gel - correct answer-Flushing with a Morgan lens
Rationale: The Morgan lens is a very useful tool for hands-free flushing of the affected eye.
Fluorescein staining and slit lamp evaluation are for corneal abrasion. Topical anesthesia would not
be applied until the substance is removed, and tetracaine, not lidocaine would be used for this.
A 19-year-old presents with a sore throat and anterior cervical adenopathy. Which causative agent
would be suspected?
*Epstein-Barr virus
*Adenovirus
*Haemophilus influenzae
*Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus - correct answer-Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
, Page 3 of 90
30 May 2026
Rationale: While this patient could easily represent strep or EBV, the differentiating factor is the
location of the affected lymphadenopathy. As a generalization, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy
is common of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and anterior cervical lymphadenopathy is more common with
Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
An elderly patient has throbbing pain in the left eye, blurred vision, marked photophobia, and
redness around the iris. What is the nurse practitioner's initial diagnosis?
*Iritis
*Glaucoma
*Sjogren's syndrome
*Conjunctivitis - correct answer-Iritis
Rationale: Redness around the iris is a classic descriptor of iritis, whereas conjunctival erythema and
injection is suggestive of conjunctivitis. Sjogren syndrome is characterized by dry eyes, and glaucoma
typically shares the symptoms noted above but does not have circular redness around the iris.
Your patient presents to the urgent care clinic with a swollen exudative pharynx, profound fatigue,
and a very tender left upper quadrant abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
*Pancreatitis
*Strep pharyngitis
*Tonsillitis - correct answer-Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Rationale: Splenomegaly in the setting of upper respiratory infection is almost always EBV. Strep
pharyngitis does also have similar attributes but does not explain the splenomegaly. Pancreatitis also
has left upper quadrant discomfort but does not have URI symptoms. Tonsillitis is possible except it
also does not explain splenomegaly.
Your patient was diagnosed with strep pharyngitis due to symptoms and exudative pharyngitis by
appearance only and started on amoxicillin yesterday. Rapid strep test was negative and awaiting
a throat culture to be read at this time. The patient has since developed a widespread rash across
their entire torso and extending down their extremities. The patient also has associated
splenomegaly. What is the most likely cause of this rash?
*Epstein Barr virus drug rash due to penicillin administration
*Pityriasis rosea due to immune response
*Keratosis pilaris in response to penicillin
, Page 4 of 90
30 May 2026
*Lichens planus due to immune response - correct answer-Epstein Barr virus drug rash due to
penicillin administration
Rationale: It is common to have a rash after a missed mononucleosis diagnosis and treat the patient
with penicillin due to a presumed strep pharyngitis. The rest of these options do not explain this
morphology.
Which of the following is not a common mechanism of neutrophil expenditure and resultant
neutropenia?
*Decreased neutrophil production in the bone marrow
*Loss of circulating neutrophils in acute blood loss
*Redistribution of neutrophils to the spleen or vascular endothelium
*Immune destruction - correct answer-Loss of circulating neutrophils in acute blood loss
Rationale: Neutropenia can result from three basic mechanisms: decreased production in the bone
marrow, redistribution, or immune destruction.
A patient is taking warfarin, 4 mg daily for atrial fibrillation. The patient's current International
Normalized Ratio (INR) is 5.5 mg/dL. The nurse practitioner would:
*hold the warfarin for 4 days and then recheck the INR.
*increase the warfarin to 5 mg daily.
*hold the warfarin for 1 day and then recheck in two days.
*decrease the warfarin to 3 mg daily. - correct answer-hold the warfarin for 1 day and then recheck
in two days.
Rationale: As warfarin has a long half life, it typically takes several days to see meaningful change in
levels of dose change. The INR of 5.5 is supratherapeutic and must be reduced for the risk of
bleeding. Of these options, the only one that offers a reduction/cessation and and a recheck of the
level is to hold the warfarin for one day and recheck the INR in 2 days.
A patient presents to the urgent care with SOB, fatigue, headache, and chest pain. Cardiac workup
is negative but CBC reveals a hemoglobin of 6.5. Which of the following indices would indicate a
potential iron deficiency anemia?
*MCV 95, MCHC 34
*MCV 67, MCHC 29
*MCV 112, MCHC 40
*MCV 72, MCHC 38 - correct answer-MCV 67, MCHC 29
30 May 2026
CEA EXAM 2026/2027 TEST BANK WITH 500 EXAM
PREP QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALE/ CEA FNP TEST 2026 TEST BANK (100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS)..
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows
a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib
spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the
window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - correct answer-Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe
lingula.
Your irate patient on involuntary hold due to risk of harm to themself or others says they are going
to "kill you when you leave work after they get discharged". This statement is an example of
which of the following? *None of these options
*Emotional battery
*Verbal battery
*Verbal assault - correct answer-Verbal assault
Rationale: Assault refers to the risk of a harm to others, whereas battery refers to the actual act of
that harm.
Patients presenting with globe rupture should be sent to immediate surgery due to which of the
following reasons?
*Loss of vision is worse if surgery is immediate
*Delay in surgery can increase incidence of choroidal hemorrhage
*Pain associated to the traumatic event is less when surgery is performed immediately
, Page 2 of 90
30 May 2026
*Rapid surgery can increase incidence of endophthalmitis - correct answer-Delay in surgery can
increase incidence of choroidal hemorrhage
Rationale: Delay in surgery can increase incidence of both choroidal hemorrhage as well as
endophthalmitis. Loss of vision is likely less if surgical intervention is immediate for the same reasons
as above and pain due to the trauma itself has no bearing on surgical timing.
A 60-year-old man presents with persistent hoarseness for the past 3 months. He has a history of
smoking. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
*Prescribe voice rest and hydration
*Referral to an otolaryngologist for laryngoscopy
*Advise gargling with warm salt water
*Start a course of oral corticosteroids - correct answer-Referral to an otolaryngologist for
laryngoscopy
Rationale: Suspicion of malignancy should be considered in individuals with risk factors such as
smoking presenting with unexplained hoarseness lasting more than two weeks.
Your patient presents with unilateral eye pain after a workplace exposure to a caustic substance.
Which of the following techniques is useful to assist in removal of the agent?
*Flushing with a Morgan lens
*Slit lap evaluation
*Fluorescein staining
*Topical anesthesia with lidocaine gel - correct answer-Flushing with a Morgan lens
Rationale: The Morgan lens is a very useful tool for hands-free flushing of the affected eye.
Fluorescein staining and slit lamp evaluation are for corneal abrasion. Topical anesthesia would not
be applied until the substance is removed, and tetracaine, not lidocaine would be used for this.
A 19-year-old presents with a sore throat and anterior cervical adenopathy. Which causative agent
would be suspected?
*Epstein-Barr virus
*Adenovirus
*Haemophilus influenzae
*Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus - correct answer-Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
, Page 3 of 90
30 May 2026
Rationale: While this patient could easily represent strep or EBV, the differentiating factor is the
location of the affected lymphadenopathy. As a generalization, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy
is common of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and anterior cervical lymphadenopathy is more common with
Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
An elderly patient has throbbing pain in the left eye, blurred vision, marked photophobia, and
redness around the iris. What is the nurse practitioner's initial diagnosis?
*Iritis
*Glaucoma
*Sjogren's syndrome
*Conjunctivitis - correct answer-Iritis
Rationale: Redness around the iris is a classic descriptor of iritis, whereas conjunctival erythema and
injection is suggestive of conjunctivitis. Sjogren syndrome is characterized by dry eyes, and glaucoma
typically shares the symptoms noted above but does not have circular redness around the iris.
Your patient presents to the urgent care clinic with a swollen exudative pharynx, profound fatigue,
and a very tender left upper quadrant abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
*Pancreatitis
*Strep pharyngitis
*Tonsillitis - correct answer-Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Rationale: Splenomegaly in the setting of upper respiratory infection is almost always EBV. Strep
pharyngitis does also have similar attributes but does not explain the splenomegaly. Pancreatitis also
has left upper quadrant discomfort but does not have URI symptoms. Tonsillitis is possible except it
also does not explain splenomegaly.
Your patient was diagnosed with strep pharyngitis due to symptoms and exudative pharyngitis by
appearance only and started on amoxicillin yesterday. Rapid strep test was negative and awaiting
a throat culture to be read at this time. The patient has since developed a widespread rash across
their entire torso and extending down their extremities. The patient also has associated
splenomegaly. What is the most likely cause of this rash?
*Epstein Barr virus drug rash due to penicillin administration
*Pityriasis rosea due to immune response
*Keratosis pilaris in response to penicillin
, Page 4 of 90
30 May 2026
*Lichens planus due to immune response - correct answer-Epstein Barr virus drug rash due to
penicillin administration
Rationale: It is common to have a rash after a missed mononucleosis diagnosis and treat the patient
with penicillin due to a presumed strep pharyngitis. The rest of these options do not explain this
morphology.
Which of the following is not a common mechanism of neutrophil expenditure and resultant
neutropenia?
*Decreased neutrophil production in the bone marrow
*Loss of circulating neutrophils in acute blood loss
*Redistribution of neutrophils to the spleen or vascular endothelium
*Immune destruction - correct answer-Loss of circulating neutrophils in acute blood loss
Rationale: Neutropenia can result from three basic mechanisms: decreased production in the bone
marrow, redistribution, or immune destruction.
A patient is taking warfarin, 4 mg daily for atrial fibrillation. The patient's current International
Normalized Ratio (INR) is 5.5 mg/dL. The nurse practitioner would:
*hold the warfarin for 4 days and then recheck the INR.
*increase the warfarin to 5 mg daily.
*hold the warfarin for 1 day and then recheck in two days.
*decrease the warfarin to 3 mg daily. - correct answer-hold the warfarin for 1 day and then recheck
in two days.
Rationale: As warfarin has a long half life, it typically takes several days to see meaningful change in
levels of dose change. The INR of 5.5 is supratherapeutic and must be reduced for the risk of
bleeding. Of these options, the only one that offers a reduction/cessation and and a recheck of the
level is to hold the warfarin for one day and recheck the INR in 2 days.
A patient presents to the urgent care with SOB, fatigue, headache, and chest pain. Cardiac workup
is negative but CBC reveals a hemoglobin of 6.5. Which of the following indices would indicate a
potential iron deficiency anemia?
*MCV 95, MCHC 34
*MCV 67, MCHC 29
*MCV 112, MCHC 40
*MCV 72, MCHC 38 - correct answer-MCV 67, MCHC 29
