______________________________________
AANPCB AGPCNP
PSI Test 1 & 2
ADULT-GERONTOLOGY PRIMARY
CARE NURSE PRACTITIONER
(AGPCNP) CERTIFICATION
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS|
100% CORRECT| GRADED A+
EXAM COVER SHEET
COURSE NAME: Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse
Practitioner
EXAM NAME: AANPCB Family Nurse Practitioner Certification
Exam
AANPCB AGPCNP PRACTICE
,An 88-year-old client is brought to the emergency department after being
found on the bathroom floor, unable to rise without assistance following a
fall. During the assessment, the nurse notes significant weakness on the
right side of the body. The client's medical history reveals episodes of
aphasia and a longstanding history of hypertension, with poor adherence to
prescribed antihypertensive medications. Based on the assessment findings
and medical history, the healthcare provider suspects a cerebrovascular
accident (CVA). Which type of stroke is most consistent with this client's
presentation?
a. Right-sided CVA
b. Bilateral CVA
c. Brainstem CVA
d. Left-sided CVA
Correct Answer: d. Left-sided CVA
Rationale:
The left hemisphere of the brain controls motor function on the right side of
the body. Therefore, weakness or paralysis affecting the right side is
typically associated with a left-sided cerebrovascular accident. In addition,
aphasia, which involves impairment of speech and language, is commonly
seen with left-hemisphere strokes because language centers are usually
located in the left cerebral hemisphere. The client's history of uncontrolled
hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke development. Recognizing the
relationship between neurological deficits and the affected cerebral
hemisphere is essential for accurate assessment and prompt intervention.
,A 56-year-old client presents to the neurology clinic with progressively
worsening headaches over the past several months. The client reports that
the headaches are most severe in the early morning and become worse
when lying flat in bed. During the neurological examination, the nurse notes
weakness of the left arm and intermittent visual disturbances. The
healthcare provider suspects an intracranial tumor and orders further
diagnostic testing. Which signs and symptoms are most commonly
associated with headaches caused by an intracranial tumor?
a. Pain worse when lying down and focal neurological signs
b. Hyperreflexia and personality change
c. Acute onset occurring within hours to days
d. Pupillary constriction and stupor
Correct Answer: a. Pain worse when lying down and focal neurological signs
Rationale:
Headaches caused by intracranial tumors are typically progressive and often
worsen when the client is lying down because intracranial pressure increases
in the supine position. These headaches may be more severe in the morning
and can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, or visual disturbances. Focal
neurological deficits, such as weakness, sensory changes, speech difficulties,
or visual abnormalities, occur when the tumor affects specific areas of the
brain. Acute onset within hours to days is more characteristic of conditions
such as hemorrhagic stroke or meningitis rather than a brain tumor. While
personality changes may occur with certain frontal lobe tumors, the
combination of worsening headaches when lying down and focal
neurological signs is the most classic presentation of an intracranial tumor.
, A 24-year-old client presents to the urgent care clinic after accidentally
scratching the right eye while inserting a contact lens. The client reports
severe eye pain, excessive tearing, redness, and sensitivity to light.
Fluorescein staining confirms the presence of a corneal abrasion. The
healthcare provider prescribes medication to prevent complications while
the cornea heals. Which pharmacotherapeutic agent would be most
important to administer to this client?
a. Timolol
b. Gentamicin ophthalmic (Genoptic)
c. Cromolyn ophthalmic
d. Olopatadine
Correct Answer: b. Gentamicin ophthalmic (Genoptic)
Rationale:
A corneal abrasion creates a break in the protective epithelial surface of the
eye, increasing the risk of bacterial infection. Ophthalmic antibiotics such as
gentamicin are commonly prescribed to prevent infection and promote safe
healing of the damaged corneal tissue. Prompt administration is especially
important for clients who wear contact lenses because they are at increased
risk for serious ocular infections. Timolol is a beta-blocker used primarily to
reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma and does not treat corneal
abrasions. Cromolyn and olopatadine are used to manage allergic eye
conditions and do not provide the antimicrobial protection needed for a
corneal injury. Therefore, gentamicin ophthalmic solution is the most
appropriate medication for this client.
AANPCB AGPCNP
PSI Test 1 & 2
ADULT-GERONTOLOGY PRIMARY
CARE NURSE PRACTITIONER
(AGPCNP) CERTIFICATION
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS|
100% CORRECT| GRADED A+
EXAM COVER SHEET
COURSE NAME: Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse
Practitioner
EXAM NAME: AANPCB Family Nurse Practitioner Certification
Exam
AANPCB AGPCNP PRACTICE
,An 88-year-old client is brought to the emergency department after being
found on the bathroom floor, unable to rise without assistance following a
fall. During the assessment, the nurse notes significant weakness on the
right side of the body. The client's medical history reveals episodes of
aphasia and a longstanding history of hypertension, with poor adherence to
prescribed antihypertensive medications. Based on the assessment findings
and medical history, the healthcare provider suspects a cerebrovascular
accident (CVA). Which type of stroke is most consistent with this client's
presentation?
a. Right-sided CVA
b. Bilateral CVA
c. Brainstem CVA
d. Left-sided CVA
Correct Answer: d. Left-sided CVA
Rationale:
The left hemisphere of the brain controls motor function on the right side of
the body. Therefore, weakness or paralysis affecting the right side is
typically associated with a left-sided cerebrovascular accident. In addition,
aphasia, which involves impairment of speech and language, is commonly
seen with left-hemisphere strokes because language centers are usually
located in the left cerebral hemisphere. The client's history of uncontrolled
hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke development. Recognizing the
relationship between neurological deficits and the affected cerebral
hemisphere is essential for accurate assessment and prompt intervention.
,A 56-year-old client presents to the neurology clinic with progressively
worsening headaches over the past several months. The client reports that
the headaches are most severe in the early morning and become worse
when lying flat in bed. During the neurological examination, the nurse notes
weakness of the left arm and intermittent visual disturbances. The
healthcare provider suspects an intracranial tumor and orders further
diagnostic testing. Which signs and symptoms are most commonly
associated with headaches caused by an intracranial tumor?
a. Pain worse when lying down and focal neurological signs
b. Hyperreflexia and personality change
c. Acute onset occurring within hours to days
d. Pupillary constriction and stupor
Correct Answer: a. Pain worse when lying down and focal neurological signs
Rationale:
Headaches caused by intracranial tumors are typically progressive and often
worsen when the client is lying down because intracranial pressure increases
in the supine position. These headaches may be more severe in the morning
and can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, or visual disturbances. Focal
neurological deficits, such as weakness, sensory changes, speech difficulties,
or visual abnormalities, occur when the tumor affects specific areas of the
brain. Acute onset within hours to days is more characteristic of conditions
such as hemorrhagic stroke or meningitis rather than a brain tumor. While
personality changes may occur with certain frontal lobe tumors, the
combination of worsening headaches when lying down and focal
neurological signs is the most classic presentation of an intracranial tumor.
, A 24-year-old client presents to the urgent care clinic after accidentally
scratching the right eye while inserting a contact lens. The client reports
severe eye pain, excessive tearing, redness, and sensitivity to light.
Fluorescein staining confirms the presence of a corneal abrasion. The
healthcare provider prescribes medication to prevent complications while
the cornea heals. Which pharmacotherapeutic agent would be most
important to administer to this client?
a. Timolol
b. Gentamicin ophthalmic (Genoptic)
c. Cromolyn ophthalmic
d. Olopatadine
Correct Answer: b. Gentamicin ophthalmic (Genoptic)
Rationale:
A corneal abrasion creates a break in the protective epithelial surface of the
eye, increasing the risk of bacterial infection. Ophthalmic antibiotics such as
gentamicin are commonly prescribed to prevent infection and promote safe
healing of the damaged corneal tissue. Prompt administration is especially
important for clients who wear contact lenses because they are at increased
risk for serious ocular infections. Timolol is a beta-blocker used primarily to
reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma and does not treat corneal
abrasions. Cromolyn and olopatadine are used to manage allergic eye
conditions and do not provide the antimicrobial protection needed for a
corneal injury. Therefore, gentamicin ophthalmic solution is the most
appropriate medication for this client.
