Family – Certification Practice Exam Newest
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1. A 24-year-old pregnant patient at 8 weeks’ gestation reports mild nausea and vomiting.
Which is the most appropriate first-line recommendation?
A. Prescribe ondansetron
B. Initiate vitamin B6 with doxylamine
C. Recommend NPO status
D. Begin IV fluids immediately
Answer: B ✓
Rationale: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) with doxylamine is first-line for nausea and
vomiting of pregnancy (NVP); ondansetron is second-line.
2. A patient at 28 weeks’ gestation is Rh-negative. What is the next step in management?
A. Administer Rh immune globulin
B. Perform amniocentesis
C. Order NST
D. No action needed
Answer: A ✓
Rationale: Rh-negative patients should receive Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks
to prevent isoimmunization.
3. Which finding is diagnostic of gestational hypertension?
A. BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks without proteinuria
B. BP ≥130/80 before 20 weeks
C. BP ≥160/110 with seizures
D. BP ≥140/90 with proteinuria before 20 weeks
Answer: A ✓
Rationale: Gestational hypertension is new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks
without proteinuria.
4. A fundal height measuring 32 cm at 32 weeks suggests:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Normal growth
C. IUGR
D. Oligohydramnios
Answer: B ✓
, Rationale: Fundal height in cm typically equals gestational age ±2 cm, indicating
normal fetal growth.
5. Which supplement is essential in early pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects?
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin D
Answer: C ✓
Rationale: Folic acid reduces risk of neural tube defects like spina bifida.
6. A patient presents with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain at 10 weeks. What is
priority?
A. Ultrasound evaluation
B. Prescribe antibiotics
C. Schedule induction
D. Bed rest only
Answer: A ✓
Rationale: Ultrasound evaluates viability and location (rule out ectopic pregnancy).
7. Which condition is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives postpartum?
A. Breastfeeding <6 weeks
B. Age <30
C. Nulliparity
D. Mild anemia
Answer: A ✓
Rationale: Estrogen-containing contraceptives reduce milk supply and increase clot
risk postpartum.
8. A pregnant patient has hemoglobin 10 g/dL. This indicates:
A. Normal
B. Mild anemia
C. Severe anemia
D. Polycythemia
Answer: B ✓
Rationale: Hemoglobin <11 g/dL in pregnancy suggests anemia, often iron
deficiency.
9. What is the recommended weight gain for a normal BMI pregnancy?
A. 10–15 lbs
B. 15–25 lbs
C. 25–35 lbs
D. 40–50 lbs
Answer: C ✓
Rationale: Normal BMI patients should gain 25–35 lbs.
10. A patient with GDM should be monitored with:
A. Weekly CBC
B. Daily glucose monitoring
C. Monthly ultrasound only
D. No monitoring
, Answer: B ✓
Rationale: Gestational diabetes requires self-monitoring of blood glucose.
11. A 30-week patient reports decreased fetal movement. First action?
A. NST
B. Ultrasound
C. Kick count assessment
D. Immediate delivery
Answer: C ✓
Rationale: Kick counts assess fetal well-being before advanced testing.
12. Which infection is screened at first prenatal visit?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Influenza
C. RSV
D. COVID-19
Answer: A ✓
Rationale: Hepatitis B screening is standard prenatal care.
13. A patient has BP 160/110 and proteinuria. Diagnosis?
A. Gestational HTN
B. Mild preeclampsia
C. Severe preeclampsia
D. Eclampsia
Answer: C ✓
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia includes BP ≥160/110 with proteinuria.
14. Magnesium sulfate is used to:
A. Lower BP
B. Prevent seizures
C. Induce labor
D. Treat infection
Answer: B ✓
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate prevents eclamptic seizures.
15. A postpartum patient with fever and uterine tenderness likely has:
A. Mastitis
B. Endometritis
C. UTI
D. DVT
Answer: B ✓
Rationale: Endometritis presents with fever, uterine tenderness postpartum.
16. Which vaccine is safe in pregnancy?
A. MMR
B. Varicella
C. Tdap
D. HPV
Answer: C ✓
Rationale: Tdap is recommended during each pregnancy.