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Examen

NUR 110 ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY FOR NURSES EXAM GUIDE Q&A 2026

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NUR 110 ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY FOR NURSES EXAM GUIDE Q&A 2026

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NUR 110 ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY FOR NURSES EXAM
GUIDE Q&A 2026
1. Which structure is responsible for the production of cerebrospinal
fluid (CSF)?
A. Arachnoid villi
B. Choroid plexus
C. Ependymal cells
D. Subarachnoid space
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The choroid plexus, located in the ventricles of the
brain, is the primary site of CSF production. Arachnoid villi absorb
CSF, ependymal cells line the ventricles, and the subarachnoid
space contains CSF but doesn't produce it.


2. A patient presents with difficulty abducting their arm beyond 90
degrees. Which muscle is most likely impaired?
A. Deltoid
B. Supraspinatus
C. Trapezius
D. Serratus anterior
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The serratus anterior stabilizes the scapula and
allows upward rotation, which is essential for arm abduction
beyond 90 degrees. The deltoid and supraspinatus initiate
abduction, but without serratus anterior function, full abduction is
impossible.

,3. Which ion is primarily responsible for the depolarization phase of
an action potential in cardiac muscle cells?
A. Potassium (K+)
B. Chloride (Cl-)
C. Calcium (Ca2+)
D. Sodium (Na+)
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sodium influx causes rapid depolarization in cardiac
action potentials. Calcium plays a major role in the plateau phase,
potassium in repolarization, and chloride has minimal role in
cardiac depolarization.


4. A nurse is assessing a patient with damage to the vagus nerve (CN
X). Which function would be most compromised?
A. Facial expression
B. Swallowing and heart rate regulation
C. Eye movement
D. Hearing and balance
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The vagus nerve controls swallowing (pharyngeal
muscles) and parasympathetic innervation to the heart. Facial
expression is CN VII, eye movement involves CN III, IV, VI, and
hearing/balance is CN VIII.


5. Which layer of the meninges is most closely adhered to the brain
surface?

, A. Dura mater
B. Arachnoid mater
C. Pia mater
D. Subdural space
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The pia mater is the innermost layer that tightly
adheres to the brain surface, following all contours. The dura
mater is the outermost tough layer, and arachnoid mater lies
between them.


6. In the nephron, where does the majority of glucose reabsorption
occur?
A. Descending limb of loop of Henle
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nearly 100% of glucose is reabsorbed in the proximal
convoluted tubule via sodium-glucose cotransporters. The other
segments have minimal to no glucose reabsorption capacity.


7. Which hormone is primarily responsible for increasing blood
calcium levels?
A. Calcitonin
B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
C. Insulin
D. Aldosterone

, Correct Answer: B
Explanation: PTH increases blood calcium by stimulating bone
resorption, increasing renal calcium reabsorption, and activating
vitamin D. Calcitonin lowers calcium, insulin affects glucose, and
aldosterone regulates sodium/potassium.


8. A patient has damage to the precentral gyrus. Which function
would be most affected?
A. Visual processing
B. Voluntary motor control
C. Auditory processing
D. Sensory perception
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The precentral gyrus contains the primary motor
cortex responsible for voluntary motor control. Visual processing
occurs in the occipital lobe, auditory in temporal lobe, and sensory
perception in the postcentral gyrus.


9. Which blood type is considered the universal donor for red blood
cell transfusions?
A. Type A positive
B. Type B negative
C. Type AB positive
D. Type O negative
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Type O negative RBCs lack A, B, and Rh antigens,

Información del documento

Subido en
2 de junio de 2026
Número de páginas
44
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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