TESTBANK PRIMARY CARE CLINICAL GUIDELINES QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS 2026
1. A 55-year-old patient with newly diagnosed hypertension and no comorbidities.
According to primary care guidelines, what is the first-line initial management
approach?
A. Immediate dual antihypertensive therapy
B. Lifestyle modification only
C. Start ACE inhibitor or calcium channel blocker
D. Start loop diuretic
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: First-line pharmacologic therapy for uncomplicated
hypertension includes ACE inhibitors, ARBs, calcium channel blockers, or
thiazide diuretics depending on patient profile. Loop diuretics are not first-
line for hypertension.
2. Which of the following is the most appropriate screening test for Type 2 diabetes in
an asymptomatic adult with risk factors?
A. Random blood glucose only
B. Fasting plasma glucose or HbA1c
C. Urine glucose test
D. Oral glucose only after symptoms develop
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: HbA1c and fasting plasma glucose are standard screening tools.
Urine glucose is not reliable, and screening should not wait for symptoms.
3. A patient with asthma has symptoms more than twice weekly and nighttime
awakenings weekly. This is classified as:
A. Intermittent asthma
B. Mild persistent asthma
C. Moderate persistent asthma
D. Severe persistent asthma
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Symptoms >2 days/week with nighttime symptoms indicate
mild persistent asthma per clinical classification guidelines.
4. First-line antibiotic choice for uncomplicated urinary tract infection in a non-
pregnant adult female is:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metronidazole
,Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nitrofurantoin is first-line for uncomplicated UTI.
Fluoroquinolones are reserved due to resistance concerns.
5. Which of the following is a red flag symptom for possible cancer in primary care?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Unexplained weight loss
C. Occasional headache
D. Seasonal allergies
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Unexplained weight loss is a systemic red flag requiring further
investigation for malignancy.
6. Recommended screening interval for cervical cancer using Pap smear in average-risk
women is:
A. Every 6 months
B. Annually
C. Every 3–5 years depending on test type
D. Only once in lifetime
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Guidelines recommend 3–5 year intervals depending on Pap
smear and HPV co-testing results.
7. In COPD management, the most important long-term intervention is:
A. Long-term antibiotics
B. Smoking cessation
C. Oral corticosteroids daily
D. Oxygen for all patients
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Smoking cessation is the only intervention proven to slow
disease progression in COPD.
8. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Influenza (inactivated)
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. MMR vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during
pregnancy.
9. First-line treatment for acute uncomplicated otitis media in children is:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
, C. Doxycycline
D. Azithromycin only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic for acute otitis media in
children.
10. A patient with suspected stroke should undergo imaging within:
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 1 hour
D. 72 hours
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Stroke guidelines recommend urgent CT/MRI within 1 hour to
guide treatment.
11. Best initial test for suspected pulmonary embolism in a stable patient is:
A. Chest X-ray
B. D-dimer test
C. ECG only
D. Sputum culture
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: D-dimer is used in low to intermediate risk patients to rule out
PE.
12. In primary care, which condition requires immediate referral?
A. Mild hypertension
B. Stable diabetes
C. Suspected meningitis
D. Seasonal rhinitis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Suspected meningitis is a medical emergency requiring urgent
hospital referral.
13. Target HbA1c for most non-pregnant adults with diabetes is:
A. <9%
B. <8%
C. <7%
D. <6% for all patients
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Most guidelines recommend HbA1c <7% unless individualized
otherwise.
CORRECT ANSWERS 2026
1. A 55-year-old patient with newly diagnosed hypertension and no comorbidities.
According to primary care guidelines, what is the first-line initial management
approach?
A. Immediate dual antihypertensive therapy
B. Lifestyle modification only
C. Start ACE inhibitor or calcium channel blocker
D. Start loop diuretic
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: First-line pharmacologic therapy for uncomplicated
hypertension includes ACE inhibitors, ARBs, calcium channel blockers, or
thiazide diuretics depending on patient profile. Loop diuretics are not first-
line for hypertension.
2. Which of the following is the most appropriate screening test for Type 2 diabetes in
an asymptomatic adult with risk factors?
A. Random blood glucose only
B. Fasting plasma glucose or HbA1c
C. Urine glucose test
D. Oral glucose only after symptoms develop
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: HbA1c and fasting plasma glucose are standard screening tools.
Urine glucose is not reliable, and screening should not wait for symptoms.
3. A patient with asthma has symptoms more than twice weekly and nighttime
awakenings weekly. This is classified as:
A. Intermittent asthma
B. Mild persistent asthma
C. Moderate persistent asthma
D. Severe persistent asthma
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Symptoms >2 days/week with nighttime symptoms indicate
mild persistent asthma per clinical classification guidelines.
4. First-line antibiotic choice for uncomplicated urinary tract infection in a non-
pregnant adult female is:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metronidazole
,Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nitrofurantoin is first-line for uncomplicated UTI.
Fluoroquinolones are reserved due to resistance concerns.
5. Which of the following is a red flag symptom for possible cancer in primary care?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Unexplained weight loss
C. Occasional headache
D. Seasonal allergies
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Unexplained weight loss is a systemic red flag requiring further
investigation for malignancy.
6. Recommended screening interval for cervical cancer using Pap smear in average-risk
women is:
A. Every 6 months
B. Annually
C. Every 3–5 years depending on test type
D. Only once in lifetime
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Guidelines recommend 3–5 year intervals depending on Pap
smear and HPV co-testing results.
7. In COPD management, the most important long-term intervention is:
A. Long-term antibiotics
B. Smoking cessation
C. Oral corticosteroids daily
D. Oxygen for all patients
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Smoking cessation is the only intervention proven to slow
disease progression in COPD.
8. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Influenza (inactivated)
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. MMR vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during
pregnancy.
9. First-line treatment for acute uncomplicated otitis media in children is:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
, C. Doxycycline
D. Azithromycin only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic for acute otitis media in
children.
10. A patient with suspected stroke should undergo imaging within:
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 1 hour
D. 72 hours
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Stroke guidelines recommend urgent CT/MRI within 1 hour to
guide treatment.
11. Best initial test for suspected pulmonary embolism in a stable patient is:
A. Chest X-ray
B. D-dimer test
C. ECG only
D. Sputum culture
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: D-dimer is used in low to intermediate risk patients to rule out
PE.
12. In primary care, which condition requires immediate referral?
A. Mild hypertension
B. Stable diabetes
C. Suspected meningitis
D. Seasonal rhinitis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Suspected meningitis is a medical emergency requiring urgent
hospital referral.
13. Target HbA1c for most non-pregnant adults with diabetes is:
A. <9%
B. <8%
C. <7%
D. <6% for all patients
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Most guidelines recommend HbA1c <7% unless individualized
otherwise.
