WPU NUR 6111 Advanced Practice Nursing 2026/2027 Mastery Workbook | Full Exam I & Comprehensive Final Exam Prep, Case Scenarios & Rationale Solutions

2026/2027


NUR 6111 Advanced Practice Nursing Exam
I Final Exam Preparation Workbook for
William Paterson University 2026/2027
Question 1:
A 72-year-old woman on hydrochlorothiazide develops uncontrolled hypertension after
starting high-dose ibuprofen for joint pain. What is the best explanation for this
interaction?
A. Ibuprofen increases diuretic absorption
B. Ibuprofen enhances renal prostaglandins
C. Ibuprofen reduces antihypertensive effectiveness by inhibiting renal prostaglandins
D. Ibuprofen directly causes hypertension through cardiac stimulation
Correct Answer: C. Ibuprofen reduces antihypertensive effectiveness by inhibiting
renal prostaglandins

Rationale: NSAIDs reduce prostaglandin-mediated renal vasodilation, leading to sodium
retention and reduced effectiveness of diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide. Options A and
B are incorrect because NSAIDs do not enhance diuretics or prostaglandins. D is
incorrect because the mechanism is renal, not direct cardiac stimulation.


Question 2:
Which infection primarily affects the cervix rather than the vagina or labia?
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Correct Answer: D. Chlamydia trachomatis

Rationale: Chlamydia commonly infects the cervix and upper reproductive tract. BV,
candidiasis, and trichomoniasis primarily affect the vagina and external genital area.


Question 3:
The obturator and iliopsoas muscle tests are used to evaluate which condition?
A. Cholecystitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Inguinal hernia
D. Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: B. Acute appendicitis

Rationale: Positive obturator and psoas signs suggest irritation of the appendix. Other
options do not produce these specific musculoskeletal pain responses.

,2026/2027

Question 4:
Which is NOT recommended for mild preeclampsia management?
A. Bed rest with bathroom privileges
B. Monitoring blood pressure and weight
C. Monitoring urine protein and labs
D. Routine antihypertensive medication initiation
Correct Answer: D. Routine antihypertensive medication initiation

Rationale: Mild preeclampsia is managed conservatively unless severe. Medications like
methyldopa are not first-line in mild cases. The other options are standard monitoring
strategies.


Question 5:
Which condition is NOT covered under Medicare Part A?
A. Inpatient hospital care
B. Skilled nursing facility care
C. Nursing home custodial care
D. Hospital-administered medications
Correct Answer: C. Nursing home custodial care

Rationale: Medicare Part A covers hospital and skilled care, but not custodial long-term
nursing home care.


Question 6:
A young adult presents with cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse infiltrates on chest X-
ray. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Streptococcal pneumonia
B. Mycoplasma pneumonia
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Legionella pneumonia
Correct Answer: B. Mycoplasma pneumonia

Rationale: Mycoplasma commonly affects young adults with mild symptoms and
interstitial infiltrates. Other options typically present with more severe illness or different
risk profiles.


Question 7:
What is the minimum induration considered positive for a PPD test in a low-risk adult?
A. 3 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 15 mm
Correct Answer: C. 10 mm

,2026/2027

Rationale: A 10 mm induration is positive in low-risk individuals. 5 mm is for high-risk
patients; 15 mm is for very low-risk screening.


Question 8:
Which statement about durable power of attorney is FALSE?
A. The agent’s decisions are legally binding
B. The agent may make financial decisions
C. The agent may decide on life support withdrawal
D. A spouse can override the agent’s decision
Correct Answer: D. A spouse can override the agent’s decision

Rationale: A valid power of attorney overrides family preference. The agent’s authority is
legally binding.


Question 9:
Which statement about Munchausen syndrome is incorrect?
A. It is a psychiatric disorder
B. Patients intentionally fabricate illness
C. It involves anxiety-based denial of real disease
D. It often involves repeated hospital visits
Correct Answer: C. It involves anxiety-based denial of real disease

Rationale: Munchausen involves intentional symptom fabrication, not anxiety-based
denial.


Question 10:
Which antihypertensive should be avoided in emphysema?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Beta-blockers
D. Diuretics
Correct Answer: C. Beta-blockers

Rationale: Beta-blockers can worsen bronchoconstriction in COPD/emphysema.


Question 11:
A patient presents with urticaria but no airway compromise. What is the best first step?
A. Epinephrine injection
B. Call emergency services
C. Full history and assessment
D. Immediate antihistamine without evaluation
Correct Answer: C. Full history and assessment

, 2026/2027

Rationale: Stable urticaria requires evaluation before treatment escalation.


Question 12:
Which is a common finding in pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A. Facial and hand edema
B. Abdominal pain only
C. Dysuria
D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: A. Facial and hand edema

Rationale: PIH commonly causes edema, hypertension, and proteinuria.


Question 13:
Which symptom is typical of vitamin B12 deficiency?
A. Joint pain
B. Neuropathy (numbness/tingling)
C. Fever
D. Skin rash
Correct Answer: B. Neuropathy (numbness/tingling)

Rationale: B12 deficiency damages peripheral nerves.


Question 14:
What abnormal triple screen result suggests Down syndrome?
A. High AFP, low hCG
B. Low AFP, high hCG
C. Normal markers
D. Low estriol only
Correct Answer: B. Low AFP, high hCG

Rationale: This pattern is consistent with trisomy 21 risk.


Question 15:
Which statement about diverticulosis is FALSE?
A. Occurs in the colon
B. Associated with low fiber diet
C. Always infected with bacteria
D. Fiber supplementation is recommended
Correct Answer: C. Always infected with bacteria

Rationale: Diverticulosis is not always infected; infection occurs in diverticulitis.