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NU 325 Exam 1 Health Assessment: Comprehensive Clinical Reasoning Questions with Rationales

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This comprehensive study guide contains exam-style questions and detailed rationales for NU 325 (Health Assessment) Exam 1, updated for current clinical practice. Covering essential topics for nursing health assessment, it includes health history interviewing techniques (open-ended probing for vague symptoms, interpreter use for limited English proficiency, PQRST mnemonic documentation, contacting previous providers for accurate medication history, nonjudgmental substance use exploration, therapeutic response to tearfulness, functional health patterns assessment, exploring patient understanding of health problems, environmental health risk assessment, past medical history documentation, silence and nonverbal cues for psychological distress, clarifying pain quality, culturally sensitive interviewing with interpreter, open-ended mood questioning, CAGE-AID screening for cannabis use disorder, addressing medication discrepancies nonjudgmentally, empathetic redirection of excessive detail), vital signs and pain assessment (volume overload in CKD with hypertension, direct SA node stimulation by fever causing tachycardia, respiratory alkalosis from tachypnea in restrictive lung disease, low-dose naloxone for opioid-induced respiratory depression, gabapentin effectiveness for neuropathic pain over one week, orthostatic hypotension with compensatory tachycardia from volume depletion, hypothermia decreasing metabolic rate, pulse oximetry limitation in anemia requiring ABG, ACE inhibitor mechanism of action, hypotension management after nitroglycerin, orthostatic hypotension mechanism in heart failure, CPOT for nonverbal mechanically ventilated patients, papilledema indicating hypertensive emergency, sinus bradycardia from increased vagal tone, increased dead space ventilation causing hypercapnia despite high minute ventilation, MAP of 70 mmHg adequate for organ perfusion, self-report as gold standard for pain despite behavioral incongruence), general survey and mental status (major depressive episode with flat affect and psychomotor retardation, administering MoCA for cognitive impairment with disorientation, cerebrovascular accident affecting cerebellum and frontal lobes, assessing for suicidal ideation and command hallucinations in disorganized patient, culturally normative eye contact avoidance, depression with malnutrition, concrete thinking in proverb interpretation, impaired attention and concentration with intact short-term memory on serial sevens, generalized anxiety disorder with psychomotor agitation, Parkinson's disease with shuffling gait and masked facies, flat affect in mood disorder, hyperthyroidism with cachexia and pressured speech, impaired attention on serial sevens but intact backward spelling, incongruent affect in mood disorder, impaired abstract reasoning on proverb interpretation, level of consciousness priority in confused patient, disorientation to time in schizophrenia), skin/hair/nails (molluscum contagiosum with intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies, calcium phosphate deposition causing pruritus in CKD, amiodarone-induced blue-gray pigmentation from iodine complex, pyoderma gangrenosum with central depression and rolled borders, excisional biopsy for suspicious melanoma lesion, normal DHEAS in telogen effluvium vs. androgenetic alopecia, absent dorsalis pedis pulse requiring vascular evaluation in diabetic foot ulcer, capecitabine causing hand-foot syndrome, subungual melanoma with Hutchinson sign and irregular dermoscopic lines, oil drop sign specific for psoriasis, venous stasis ulcer from venous hypertension with hemosiderin and lipodermatosclerosis, acrochordons (skin tags) with cerebriform dermoscopic pattern, Mohs surgery for facial basal cell carcinoma with arborizing telangiectasias, plantar callus vs. wart with relief on padding, nail matrix nevus with observation, mupirocin for MRSA superinfection in atopic dermatitis, topical clotrimazole for tinea corporis for 4 weeks), head/neck/lymphatics (left supraclavicular Virchow node concerning for metastatic malignancy, carotid body tumor with bruit and pulsation, posterior thyroid palpation with tracheal displacement, thyroglossal duct cyst elevating with tongue protrusion, tuberculous lymphadenitis (scrofula) with matted nodes and overlying erythema, jugulodigastric node metastasis from tongue base cancer, cystic hygroma enlarging with Valsalva, thyroid thrill in Graves disease, preauricular lymphadenopathy in parotitis, left-sided pneumothorax causing rightward tracheal deviation, Hashimoto thyroiditis with coexisting Graves disease causing low TSH and firm gland, excisional biopsy of fixed supraclavicular node, fibromatosis colli in sternocleidomastoid with torticollis, low TSH and elevated free T4 in Graves with exophthalmos, palpable cervical cystic nodes in papillary thyroid carcinoma, jugular vein thrombosis non-pulsatile vs. carotid aneurysm pulsatile with Valsalva, septic thrombophlebitis of external jugular vein with risk of cavernous sinus thrombosis), eyes and ears (central retinal vein occlusion with disc hyperemia and flame hemorrhages, confrontation visual field testing, conductive hearing loss with Rinne negative and Weber lateralizing to affected ear, CN II afferent limb of pupillary light reflex, Meniere disease with vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, phoria on cover-uncover test, diabetic retinopathy with dot-blot hemorrhages and cotton-wool spots, vitreous humor maintaining eyeball shape, eustachian tube dysfunction with retracted TM, tonometry initial test for glaucoma, retinal detachment with curtain-like shadow, otosclerosis with Rinne negative and Weber lateralizing to affected ear, vestibular neuritis with positive head impulse test, neovascularization indicating proliferative diabetic retinopathy, eustachian tube dysfunction with negative middle ear pressure, central retinal artery occlusion with cherry-red spot, high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss from basal turn outer hair cell damage), nose/mouth/throat (eosinophilic mucin without fungal hyphae in CRSwNP, incisional biopsy for non-scrapable leukoplakia in smoker, unilateral anterior commissure lesion concerning for malignancy, CN IX and CN X gag reflex, laryngopharyngeal reflux with globus sensation, absent transillumination in maxillary sinusitis, eruptive lingual papillitis with painful tender papules, ozena from Klebsiella ozaenae in atrophic rhinitis, tonsilloliths causing halitosis, nasal polyp from middle meatus, leukoplakia with non-scrapable white plaque, maxillary sinusitis with decreased transillumination, referral to otolaryngology for pedunculated tonsillar mass, intranasal corticosteroids first-line for nasal polyps, minocycline causing blue-black gingival discoloration, tonsilloliths with expressible cheesy material, allergic fungal sinusitis with pale edematous mucosa), thorax and lungs (increased airway resistance from bronchoconstriction causing prolonged expiration, pleural effusion with dullness and decreased fremitus, fine crackles in pulmonary edema from left ventricular failure, spiculated lung nodule 8 mm requiring PET-CT and biopsy, shifting dullness in pleural effusion, FEV1/FVC 0.7 with FEV1 55% predicted indicating obstruction, Wells score 4 for PE requiring CTPA, coarse crackles in bronchiectasis, restrictive pattern with reduced TLC in sarcoidosis, right tension pneumothorax causing leftward tracheal deviation, reversible obstruction with bronchodilator in asthma, increased residual volume in obstructive disease, septic emboli from tricuspid endocarditis causing peripheral wedge opacity, restrictive pattern with normal/increased FEV1/FVC and reduced TLC in IPF, tension pneumothorax requiring needle decompression, V/Q mismatch from mucus plugging in chronic bronchitis, exudative parapneumonic effusion with low pH and low glucose), cardiovascular (aortic regurgitation diastolic murmur at left sternal border, fixed splitting of S2 in atrial septal defect, central venous pressure 10 cm H2O with JVP 5 cm above sternal angle, parasternal lift in right ventricular hypertrophy, S4 gallop from atrial contraction against stiff ventricle in hypertension, Beck's triad and pulsus paradoxus in cardiac tamponade, late-peaking murmur in severe aortic stenosis from increasing gradient, Valsalva increases HOCM murmur, patent ductus arteriosus continuous machinery murmur, mid-systolic click and late systolic murmur in mitral valve prolapse, S3 from rapid ventricular filling into noncompliant ventricle, HOCM murmur increases with Valsalva and decreases with squatting, terminal negative P wave in V1 specific for left atrial enlargement, inter-arm BP difference 10 requiring lower extremity BP to rule out coarctation, sustained handgrip increases aortic regurgitation murmur, prominent v wave in tricuspid regurgitation), abdomen (visceral to somatic pain shift in appendicitis from peritoneal irritation, high-pitched tinkling sounds in early mechanical small bowel obstruction, decreased serum albumin and prolonged PT in cirrhotic ascites, fixed dullness in left upper quadrant from splenomegaly, Murphy sign technique with inspiratory arrest, perforated duodenal ulcer with board-like rigidity and shoulder pain, Cullen sign in acute pancreatitis, neutrophil count 250 in SBP, fecal impaction with firm nontender LLQ mass, choledocholithiasis with Charcot triad, SAAG 1.1 indicating portal hypertension ascites, somatic pain from parietal peritoneal inflammation, acute cholecystitis with RUQ mass and Murphy sign, early mechanical small bowel obstruction with tinkling sounds and obstipation, SBP with neutrophil count 250 and low protein, Grey Turner and Cullen signs in necrotizing pancreatitis), musculoskeletal (Lachman test sensitivity at 20-30 degrees knee flexion minimizing hamstring stabilization, Modic type 1 changes with bone marrow edema, iliopsoas weakness on straight leg raise, thumb spica cast for suspected scaphoid fracture with negative X-rays, RA ulnar deviation from synovitis and boutonniere from central slip rupture, drop arm test and weakness 0-30 degrees abduction in supraspinatus tear, femoral neck fracture disrupting medial circumflex femoral artery causing AVN, J-sign from VMO weakness, monosodium urate crystals activating NLRP3 inflammasome in gout, supraspinatus involvement in abduction limitation, positive Trendelenburg sign from ipsilateral gluteus medius weakness, ankylosing spondylitis with loss of lordosis and limited extension, positive Lachman test for ACL injury, septic arthritis requiring empiric vancomycin and joint drainage), neurological (Brown-Séquard pattern with right-sided lesion causing left pain/temp and right proprioception loss, graphesthesia deficit from dorsal column lesion, cerebellar signs with nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, PICA occlusion causing lateral medullary syndrome, basal ganglia selecting and inhibiting motor programs, dorsal column damage on left in Brown-Séquard, uvula deviates away from CN X lesion, right cerebellar hemisphere causing ipsilateral dysdiadochokinesia and dysmetria, positive Romberg from dorsal column proprioceptive loss, superior division MCA stroke sparing face, right CN III compression from uncal herniation with ptosis and mydriasis, cerebellar hemisphere lesion causing dysdiadochokinesia, MLF lesion causing internuclear ophthalmoplegia in MS, left MCA superior division causing Broca aphasia with right hemiparesis, left-sided Brown-Séquard with left pain/temp loss and right proprioception loss, subarachnoid hemorrhage with hyperdense basal cisterns). Each question is followed by the correct answer and a thorough explanation of the assessment findings, pathophysiologic mechanisms, and clinical decision-making, making this an ideal resource for nursing students preparing for exams or clinical practice

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NU 325
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NU 325 Exam 1 (PDF) | (Updated) Health Assessment
Exam-Style Questions — 200 Questions

Section 1: Health History and Interviewing (Questions 1-17)

1 During a health history interview, a patient provides a vague description of their chief complaint, stating 'I just
feel unwell.' Which interviewing technique is most appropriate to clarify the nature and onset of the symptom
while avoiding leading the patient?
A) Ask 'Do you feel nauseous or dizzy?' to narrow down possibilities.
B) Use open-ended probing: 'Tell me more about what you mean by feeling unwell.'
C) Proceed to the review of systems to systematically identify affected areas.
D) Reassure the patient and ask about recent life stressors.
Answer: B
Rationale: Open-ended probing encourages the patient to elaborate without imposing the interviewer's assumptions.
Option A is leading and may bias responses. Option C bypasses clarification, risking incomplete data. Option D
may be appropriate later but does not clarify the symptom first.

2 A nurse is conducting a health history with a patient who has limited English proficiency. An interpreter is
present. Which action by the nurse best ensures accurate communication and patient autonomy?
A) Direct all questions to the interpreter, who then translates to the patient.
B) Maintain eye contact with the patient while speaking, and allow the interpreter to translate.
C) Use simple English phrases and rely on family members to interpret.
D) Avoid sensitive topics to minimize cultural discomfort.
Answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining eye contact with the patient respects their personhood and builds rapport, while the
interpreter facilitates accurate translation. Option A disengages the patient. Option C risks inaccurate translation
and breaches confidentiality. Option D may omit crucial health information.

3 When documenting the health history, a nurse records the patient's statement: 'I have had chest pain for three
days.' Which component of the PQRST mnemonic is being documented?
A) Provocative/Palliative factors
B) Quality of the symptom
C) Region/Radiation
D) Temporal onset
Answer: D
Rationale: Temporal onset refers to when the symptom began and its duration. 'For three days' describes the time
course. Option A would include what makes it better or worse. Option B describes the sensation (e.g., sharp, dull).
Option C describes location and spread.

4 A patient reports a history of hypertension but cannot recall the specific blood pressure readings or medications.
Which approach is most effective for obtaining accurate data?
A) Ask the patient to estimate the duration of hypertension and list any medications they remember.
B) Request permission to contact the patient's previous healthcare provider for records.
C) Document the history as 'unknown' and proceed with the physical assessment.
D) Use a standardized questionnaire to prompt recall.

,Answer: B
Rationale: Contacting previous providers is the most reliable method to obtain accurate medical history when
patient recall is poor. Option A relies on potentially inaccurate memory. Option C may miss critical data. Option D
may help but is less reliable than direct records.

5 During the social history portion of an interview, a patient discloses occasional marijuana use. The nurse's best
response is to:
A) Document the disclosure and ask about frequency, mode, and context of use.
B) Advise the patient to stop using marijuana due to health risks.
C) Avoid further questions to prevent making the patient uncomfortable.
D) Inform the patient that marijuana use is illegal and must be reported.
Answer: A
Rationale: Nonjudgmental exploration of substance use provides essential health data and builds trust. Option B
may be premature and damage rapport. Option C misses important assessment information. Option D is incorrect in
many jurisdictions and may violate confidentiality unless legally required.

6 A nurse is interviewing a patient who becomes tearful when discussing a recent diagnosis. Which therapeutic
communication technique is most appropriate?
A) Offer a tissue and say, 'It's okay, many people feel this way.'
B) Silently hand a tissue and allow the patient to compose themselves before continuing.
C) Change the subject to a less emotional topic.
D) Say, 'I understand this is difficult, but we need to finish the history.'
Answer: B
Rationale: Silent presence and offering a tissue conveys empathy without disrupting the patient's emotional
processing. Option A may minimize feelings. Option C avoids the issue. Option D dismisses the patient's emotions
and may damage rapport.

7 When assessing a patient's functional health pattern, which question is most relevant to the 'health
perception-health management' pattern?
A) How do you typically cope with stress?
B) What do you do to stay healthy?
C) How would you describe your relationships with family?
D) What is your typical daily diet?
Answer: B
Rationale: Health perception-health management pattern focuses on the patient's perceived health status and health
practices. Option B directly addresses health maintenance behaviors. Option A relates to coping/stress tolerance.
Option C relates to role-relationship pattern. Option D relates to nutritional-metabolic pattern.

8 A patient presents with multiple vague symptoms and a history of multiple visits to different providers. Which
interviewing strategy is most appropriate to efficiently gather data without reinforcing somatization?
A) Use a structured review of systems to cover all possible symptoms.
B) Ask open-ended questions about the patient's understanding of their health problems.
C) Limit the interview to the chief complaint and past medical history.
D) Confront the patient about the inconsistency of symptoms.
Answer: B
Rationale: Exploring the patient's perspective helps understand their concerns and avoids reinforcing excessive
symptom focus. Option A may encourage listing of symptoms. Option C may miss important context. Option D is

,confrontational and damages rapport.

9 A nurse is taking a health history from a patient who is a recent immigrant. Which question best assesses for
potential environmental health risks?
A) Do you feel safe in your current living situation?
B) What kind of work did you do in your home country?
C) Have you been exposed to any chemicals or pollutants at home or work?
D) Do you have any allergies?
Answer: C
Rationale: Directly asking about chemical or pollutant exposure targets environmental health risks. Option A
addresses safety but is broader. Option B may be relevant but does not specifically assess exposure. Option D is
about allergies, not environmental hazards.

10 When documenting the health history, the nurse writes: 'Patient states she has a history of asthma, diagnosed at
age 10, last exacerbation 2 years ago, uses albuterol PRN.' This documentation reflects which component of the
health history?
A) Chief complaint
B) Past medical history
C) Review of systems
D) History of present illness
Answer: B
Rationale: Past medical history includes chronic illnesses, diagnoses, and treatments. This entry describes asthma
diagnosis and management. Option A is the reason for visit. Option C is a systematic inquiry about current
symptoms. Option D details the current illness episode.

11 A clinician is conducting a health history interview with a patient who displays a flat affect, avoids eye contact,
and gives monosyllabic responses. The clinician suspects the patient may be experiencing psychological
distress. Which interviewing technique is most appropriate to encourage disclosure without causing the patient
to feel defensive?

A) Using closed-ended questions to obtain specific factual information quickly.
B) Employing silence and nonverbal cues such as nodding to allow the patient time to elaborate.
C) Confronting the patient directly about their lack of engagement to promote honesty.
D) Asking multiple questions in succession to cover all health domains efficiently.
Answer: B
Rationale: Silence and attentive nonverbal cues create a safe space for the patient to share at their own pace,
reducing perceived pressure. Closed-ended questions limit disclosure, confrontation may increase defensiveness,
and rapid questioning can overwhelm the patient.

12 During a health history interview, a patient describes a symptom as 'a sharp, stabbing pain that comes and
goes.' The clinician notes the patient uses the word 'sharp' but does not elaborate further. Which of the
following responses best demonstrates the use of probing to clarify the quality of the symptom?
A) "You said the pain is sharp. Can you tell me more about what 'sharp' feels like?"
B) "Is the pain more like a knife or like a needle?"
C) "Does anything make the pain better or worse?"
D) "How long does each episode of sharp pain last?"
Answer: A
Rationale: This open-ended probe invites the patient to elaborate on the quality of pain without leading them.

, Option B is a leading question that limits the response to two options. Options C and D address aggravating factors
and duration, not quality.

13 A clinician is interviewing a patient who recently immigrated and speaks English as a second language. The
patient appears anxious and frequently looks at the interpreter. Which action by the clinician best demonstrates
culturally sensitive interviewing?
A) Directing all questions to the interpreter and avoiding eye contact with the patient to reduce pressure.
B) Addressing the patient directly while using the interpreter for translation, maintaining occasional eye contact.
C) Asking the interpreter to summarize the patient's responses after the interview to save time.
D) Using medical jargon to ensure precision, and asking the interpreter to simplify if needed.
Answer: B
Rationale: Addressing the patient directly respects their autonomy and builds rapport; the interpreter serves as a
conduit. Avoiding eye contact (A) may seem dismissive, summarizing afterward (C) risks missing nuances, and
jargon (D) can confuse the translation process.

14 A patient reports having 'trouble sleeping' but cannot specify duration or triggers. The clinician suspects the
symptom may be related to undiagnosed depression. Which interviewing strategy is most effective for
gathering information about the patient's mood while maintaining neutrality?
A) Asking, "Do you feel sad or depressed?"
B) Using a validated screening tool like the PHQ-9 during the interview.
C) Asking open-endedly, "How would you describe your mood lately?"
D) Suggesting, "Many people with sleep problems feel stressed; is that the case for you?"
Answer: C
Rationale: An open-ended question about mood allows the patient to describe their experience without being led.
Option A is a closed, leading question. Option B is appropriate but not an interviewing strategy per se; it is a
formal screening. Option D leads the patient toward stress.

15 A clinician is taking a health history from a patient who discloses occasional use of recreational marijuana. The
clinician needs to assess for potential cannabis use disorder. Which question is most appropriate for screening,
based on current DSM-5 criteria?
A) "How often do you use marijuana?"
B) "Have you ever tried to cut down or stop using marijuana but found you couldn't?"
C) "Do you think marijuana is harmful to your health?"
D) "Does your family know about your marijuana use?"
Answer: B
Rationale: This question directly addresses impaired control, a core criterion for substance use disorders (DSM-5).
Frequency (A) is less specific, perceived harm (C) is subjective, and family knowledge (D) does not assess disorder
severity.

16 During a health history interview, a patient states, "I don't take any medications," but the clinician notices
several prescription bottles in the patient's bag. What is the most appropriate interviewing technique to address
this discrepancy?
A) Confront the patient by saying, "I see you have medications; why did you say you don't take any?"
B) Ignore the discrepancy to maintain rapport and trust.
C) Ask nonjudgmentally, "I noticed some medication bottles; can you tell me about those?"
D) Document the patient's statement and assume the bottles belong to someone else.
Answer: C

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Subido en
27 de mayo de 2026
Número de páginas
57
Escrito en
2025/2026
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