Perfusion/Oxygenation (CP #3) Test Bank
Chapter 12
1. Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close?
a. Increased intraventricular pressure
b. Depolarization at the AV node
c. Ventricular relaxation and backflow of blood
d. Contraction of the atria
2. When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?
a. Decreased peripheral resistance
b. Increased heart rate
c. Decreased venous return
d. General vasodilation
3. Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity?
a. It contains sufficient fluid to provide a protective cushion for the heart.
b. It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid.
c. It is lined by the endocardium.
d. It is located between the double-walled pericardium and the epicardium.
4. Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?
a. Rapid emptying of the right side of the heart
b. Forceful action of the valves in the veins
c. Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle
d. Peristalsis in the large veins
5. The function of the baroreceptors is to:
a. Stimulate the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous system at the sinoatrial (SA) node as needed.
b. Adjust blood pressure by changing peripheral resistance.
c. Sense a change in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.
d. Signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure.
6. The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for:
a. Preventing an excessively rapid heart rate
b. Limiting the time for a myocardial contraction
c. Allowing the ventricles to contract before the atria
d. Completing ventricular filling
7. Which of the following is a result of increased secretion of epinephrine?
a. Increased heart rate and force of contraction
b. Decreased stimulation of the SA node and ventricles
c. Vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles and kidneys
d. Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels
8. Which of the following causes increased heart rate?
a. Stimulation of the vagus nerve
b. Increased renin secretion
c. Administration of beta-blocking drugs
d. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
9. The event that causes the QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing is:
a. Atrial depolarization
b. Atrial repolarization
c. Ventricular depolarization
d. Ventricular repolarization
,10. The cardiac reserve is:
a. Afterload
b. The difference between the apical and redial pulses
c. The ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed
d. The extra blood remaining in the heart after in contracts
11. The term preload refers to:
a. Volume of venous return
b. Peripheral resistance
c. Stroke volume
d. Cardiac output
12. The first arteries to branch off the aorta are the:
a. Common carotid arteries
b. Pulmonary arteries
c. Coronary arteries
d. Subclavian arteries
13. Cardiac output refers to:
a. The amount of blood passing through either of the atria
b. The volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute
c. The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in a single contraction
d. The total number of heartbeats in one minute
14. Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from:
a. Decreased blood pressure
b. Increased parasympathetic stimulation
c. Relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles
d. Increased stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors
15. Which of the following drugs decrease sodium and fluid retention in the body?
a. Warfarin (Coumadin)
b. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
c. Nitroglycerin (Isordil)
d. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
16. Which of the following are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation? (Select all that apply)
a. Decreased viscosity of the blood
b. Damaged blood vessel walls
c. Immobility
d. Prosthetic valves
17. A drug taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion is:
a. Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)
b. Streptokinase
c. Acetaminophen
d. Heparin
18. A partial obstruction in a coronary artery will likely cause:
a. Pulmonary embolus
b. Hypertension
c. Angina attacks
d. Myocardial infarction
19. Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:
a. Reduced vasoconstriction and peripheral resistance
b. Decreases serum lipid levels
c. Promotes platelet adhesion
d. Increases serum HDL levels
,20. The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to:
a. Development of atheromas in large arteries
b. Intermittent vasospasm in coronary arteries
c. Degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries
d. Ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart
21. A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is:
a. Leading a sedentary lifestyle
b. Being female and older than 40 years of age
c. Excluding saturated fats from the diet
d. Familial hypercholesterolemia
22. An atheroma develops from:
a. A torn arterial wall and blood clots
b. Accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred
c. Thrombus forming on damaged walls of veins
d. Repeated vasospasms
23. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL):
a. Promote atheroma development
b. Contain only small amounts of cholesterol
c. Transport cholesterol from cells to the liver for excretion
d. Are associated with low intake of saturated fats
24. Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Eating a large meal
b. Engaging in an angry argument
c. Taking a nap
d. Shoveling snow on a cold, windy day
25. When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true?
a. Both angina and MI cause tissue necrosis
b. Angina often occurs at rest; MI occurs during a stressful time
c. Pain is more severe and lasts longer with angina than with MI
d. Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; the pain of MI is not
26. The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as:
a. Cardiac output that is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body.
b. Temporary vasospasm that occurs in a coronary artery.
c. Total obstruction of a coronary artery, which causes myocardial necrosis.
d. Irregular heart rate and force, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries.
27. Typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction include:
a. Brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing.
b. Persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse.
c. Bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and severe dyspnea.
d. Flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness, and numbness.
28. The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is:
a. An imbalance in calcium ions
b. An infection of the heart muscle
c. Atherosclerosis involving an attached thrombus
d. A disruption of the heart conduction system
29. Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in:
a. Reducing the risk of blood clotting
b. Decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques
c. Reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions
d. Decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias
, 30. Which of the following confirms the presence of a myocardial infarction?
a. A full description of the pain, including the sequence of development
b. The presence of elevated serum cholesterol and triglycerides
c. Serum isoenzymes released from necrotic cells and an ECG
d. Leukocytosis and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)
31. The size of the necrotic area resulting from myocardial infarction may be minimized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Previously established collateral circulation
b. Immediate administration of thrombolytic drugs
c. Maintaining maximum oxygen supply to the myocardium
d. Removing the predisposing factors to atheroma development
32. The most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction is:
a. Cardiac arrhythmias and fibrillation
b. Ruptured ventricle or aorta
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Cerebrovascular accident
33. Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
a. Delayed conduction through the AV node blocks ventricular stimulation.
b. Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.
c. The ventricles contract before the atria.
d. Parasympathetic stimulation depresses the SA node.
34. The term cardiac arrest refers to which of the following?
a. Condition where cardiac output is less than the demand
b. A decreased circulating blood volume
c. Missing a ventricular contraction
d. The cessation of all cardiac function
35. Which change results from total heart block?
a. A prolonged PR interval
b. Periodic omission of a ventricular contraction
c. A wide QRS wave
d. Spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction
36. The term premature ventricular contraction refers to the condition where:
a. Atrial muscle cells are stimulating additional cardiac contractions
b. The ventricles contract spontaneously following a period without a stimulus
c. Additional contractions arise from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle
d. Increased heart rate causes palpitations
37. Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?
a. Incompetent tricuspid heart valve
b. Chronic pulmonary disease
c. Infarction in the right atrium
d. Uncontrolled essential hypertension
38. The definition of congestive heart failure is:
a. Cessation of all cardiac activity
b. Inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body
c. Insufficient circulating blood in the body
d. The demand for oxygen by the heart is greater than the supply
39. Significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure include:
a. Severe chest pain and tachycardia
b. Edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly
c. Frequent cough with blood-streaked frothy sputum
d. Orthopnea, fatigue, increased blood pressure
Chapter 12
1. Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close?
a. Increased intraventricular pressure
b. Depolarization at the AV node
c. Ventricular relaxation and backflow of blood
d. Contraction of the atria
2. When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?
a. Decreased peripheral resistance
b. Increased heart rate
c. Decreased venous return
d. General vasodilation
3. Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity?
a. It contains sufficient fluid to provide a protective cushion for the heart.
b. It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid.
c. It is lined by the endocardium.
d. It is located between the double-walled pericardium and the epicardium.
4. Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?
a. Rapid emptying of the right side of the heart
b. Forceful action of the valves in the veins
c. Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle
d. Peristalsis in the large veins
5. The function of the baroreceptors is to:
a. Stimulate the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous system at the sinoatrial (SA) node as needed.
b. Adjust blood pressure by changing peripheral resistance.
c. Sense a change in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.
d. Signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure.
6. The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for:
a. Preventing an excessively rapid heart rate
b. Limiting the time for a myocardial contraction
c. Allowing the ventricles to contract before the atria
d. Completing ventricular filling
7. Which of the following is a result of increased secretion of epinephrine?
a. Increased heart rate and force of contraction
b. Decreased stimulation of the SA node and ventricles
c. Vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles and kidneys
d. Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels
8. Which of the following causes increased heart rate?
a. Stimulation of the vagus nerve
b. Increased renin secretion
c. Administration of beta-blocking drugs
d. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
9. The event that causes the QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing is:
a. Atrial depolarization
b. Atrial repolarization
c. Ventricular depolarization
d. Ventricular repolarization
,10. The cardiac reserve is:
a. Afterload
b. The difference between the apical and redial pulses
c. The ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed
d. The extra blood remaining in the heart after in contracts
11. The term preload refers to:
a. Volume of venous return
b. Peripheral resistance
c. Stroke volume
d. Cardiac output
12. The first arteries to branch off the aorta are the:
a. Common carotid arteries
b. Pulmonary arteries
c. Coronary arteries
d. Subclavian arteries
13. Cardiac output refers to:
a. The amount of blood passing through either of the atria
b. The volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute
c. The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in a single contraction
d. The total number of heartbeats in one minute
14. Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from:
a. Decreased blood pressure
b. Increased parasympathetic stimulation
c. Relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles
d. Increased stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors
15. Which of the following drugs decrease sodium and fluid retention in the body?
a. Warfarin (Coumadin)
b. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
c. Nitroglycerin (Isordil)
d. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
16. Which of the following are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation? (Select all that apply)
a. Decreased viscosity of the blood
b. Damaged blood vessel walls
c. Immobility
d. Prosthetic valves
17. A drug taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion is:
a. Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)
b. Streptokinase
c. Acetaminophen
d. Heparin
18. A partial obstruction in a coronary artery will likely cause:
a. Pulmonary embolus
b. Hypertension
c. Angina attacks
d. Myocardial infarction
19. Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:
a. Reduced vasoconstriction and peripheral resistance
b. Decreases serum lipid levels
c. Promotes platelet adhesion
d. Increases serum HDL levels
,20. The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to:
a. Development of atheromas in large arteries
b. Intermittent vasospasm in coronary arteries
c. Degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries
d. Ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart
21. A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is:
a. Leading a sedentary lifestyle
b. Being female and older than 40 years of age
c. Excluding saturated fats from the diet
d. Familial hypercholesterolemia
22. An atheroma develops from:
a. A torn arterial wall and blood clots
b. Accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred
c. Thrombus forming on damaged walls of veins
d. Repeated vasospasms
23. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL):
a. Promote atheroma development
b. Contain only small amounts of cholesterol
c. Transport cholesterol from cells to the liver for excretion
d. Are associated with low intake of saturated fats
24. Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Eating a large meal
b. Engaging in an angry argument
c. Taking a nap
d. Shoveling snow on a cold, windy day
25. When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true?
a. Both angina and MI cause tissue necrosis
b. Angina often occurs at rest; MI occurs during a stressful time
c. Pain is more severe and lasts longer with angina than with MI
d. Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; the pain of MI is not
26. The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as:
a. Cardiac output that is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body.
b. Temporary vasospasm that occurs in a coronary artery.
c. Total obstruction of a coronary artery, which causes myocardial necrosis.
d. Irregular heart rate and force, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries.
27. Typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction include:
a. Brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing.
b. Persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse.
c. Bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and severe dyspnea.
d. Flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness, and numbness.
28. The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is:
a. An imbalance in calcium ions
b. An infection of the heart muscle
c. Atherosclerosis involving an attached thrombus
d. A disruption of the heart conduction system
29. Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in:
a. Reducing the risk of blood clotting
b. Decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques
c. Reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions
d. Decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias
, 30. Which of the following confirms the presence of a myocardial infarction?
a. A full description of the pain, including the sequence of development
b. The presence of elevated serum cholesterol and triglycerides
c. Serum isoenzymes released from necrotic cells and an ECG
d. Leukocytosis and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)
31. The size of the necrotic area resulting from myocardial infarction may be minimized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Previously established collateral circulation
b. Immediate administration of thrombolytic drugs
c. Maintaining maximum oxygen supply to the myocardium
d. Removing the predisposing factors to atheroma development
32. The most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction is:
a. Cardiac arrhythmias and fibrillation
b. Ruptured ventricle or aorta
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Cerebrovascular accident
33. Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
a. Delayed conduction through the AV node blocks ventricular stimulation.
b. Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.
c. The ventricles contract before the atria.
d. Parasympathetic stimulation depresses the SA node.
34. The term cardiac arrest refers to which of the following?
a. Condition where cardiac output is less than the demand
b. A decreased circulating blood volume
c. Missing a ventricular contraction
d. The cessation of all cardiac function
35. Which change results from total heart block?
a. A prolonged PR interval
b. Periodic omission of a ventricular contraction
c. A wide QRS wave
d. Spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction
36. The term premature ventricular contraction refers to the condition where:
a. Atrial muscle cells are stimulating additional cardiac contractions
b. The ventricles contract spontaneously following a period without a stimulus
c. Additional contractions arise from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle
d. Increased heart rate causes palpitations
37. Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?
a. Incompetent tricuspid heart valve
b. Chronic pulmonary disease
c. Infarction in the right atrium
d. Uncontrolled essential hypertension
38. The definition of congestive heart failure is:
a. Cessation of all cardiac activity
b. Inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body
c. Insufficient circulating blood in the body
d. The demand for oxygen by the heart is greater than the supply
39. Significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure include:
a. Severe chest pain and tachycardia
b. Edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly
c. Frequent cough with blood-streaked frothy sputum
d. Orthopnea, fatigue, increased blood pressure
