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HESI LPN-TO-ADN MOBILITY ENTRANCE COMPREHENSIVE EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY A GRADED

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HESI LPN-TO-ADN MOBILITY ENTRANCE COMPREHENSIVE EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY A GRADED

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HESI LPN-TO-ADN MOBILITY ENTRANCE
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM STUDY GUIDE
2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
|ALREADY A GRADED


1. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). Which assessment finding requires immediate
intervention?

A. Barrel-shaped chest
B. Productive cough
C. Oxygen saturation of 82%
D. Mild dyspnea on exertion

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 82% indicates severe hypoxemia
requiring immediate intervention.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus becomes diaphoretic and confused.
What should the nurse do first?

A. Administer insulin
B. Notify the provider
C. Check blood pressure
D. Check blood glucose level

Rationale: These findings suggest hypoglycemia, and blood glucose
should be assessed immediately.

3. Which client should the nurse assess first?

A. Client with chronic arthritis pain rated 5/10
B. Client requesting discharge instructions

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C. Client with chest pain and shortness of breath
D. Client awaiting routine dressing change

Rationale: Chest pain with dyspnea may indicate a life-threatening
cardiac or pulmonary event.

4. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who suddenly becomes
restless and tachycardic. Which complication should the nurse
suspect first?

A. Urinary retention
B. Hemorrhage
C. Constipation
D. Wound infection

Rationale: Restlessness and tachycardia are early signs of
hemorrhagic shock.

5. Which intervention best prevents pressure injuries in immobile
clients?

A. Limiting fluids
B. Massage over bony prominences
C. Frequent repositioning
D. Elevating the head of bed continuously

Rationale: Frequent repositioning reduces prolonged pressure on
tissues.

6. A nurse should question which medication prescription for a client
with a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L?

A. Potassium chloride
B. Furosemide
C. Cardiac monitoring
D. IV fluids

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Rationale: Furosemide may worsen hypokalemia.

7. Which finding indicates effective CPR?

A. Rib fractures
B. Palpable pulse during compressions
C. Cyanosis
D. Dilated pupils

Rationale: A palpable pulse during compressions suggests adequate
circulation.

8. A client with heart failure should be instructed to report which
symptom immediately?

A. Mild fatigue
B. Occasional cough
C. Rapid weight gain
D. Dry skin

Rationale: Rapid weight gain may indicate fluid retention and
worsening heart failure.

9. A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin. Which laboratory
value is most important?

A. Sodium
B. Hemoglobin
C. Platelets
D. INR

Rationale: INR monitors therapeutic anticoagulation effectiveness and
safety.

10. Which client is at highest risk for falls?

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A. Young adult with appendicitis
B. Older adult receiving sedatives
C. Middle-aged client with hypertension
D. Client with seasonal allergies

Rationale: Age and sedative use significantly increase fall risk.

11. A nurse is assessing a client with meningitis. Which finding
requires immediate reporting?

A. Fever
B. Headache
C. Decreased level of consciousness
D. Neck stiffness

Rationale: Altered consciousness may indicate increased intracranial
pressure.

12. Which food should a client taking warfarin consume
consistently?

A. Bananas
B. Oranges
C. Green leafy vegetables
D. Cheese

Rationale: Consistent vitamin K intake helps stabilize INR.

13. A client receiving morphine develops respirations of 8/min.
Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

A. Epinephrine
B. Flumazenil
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine

Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression.

Información del documento

Subido en
23 de mayo de 2026
Número de páginas
40
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
Contiene
Preguntas y respuestas
$24.49

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