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WGU D115 OA PREP TEST BANK 2025_2026.

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Prepare for the WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology Objective Assessment (OA) with this comprehensive 2025/2026 test bank. This document contains 150 exam-style questions covering all major topics including genetics, immunology, infectious disease, pathophysiology of body systems (cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, GI, endocrine), neurology, hematology/oncology, and renal disorders. Each question includes the verified correct answer and a detailed clinical rationale. Perfect for MSN and NP students at Western Governors University (WGU) seeking to pass the D115 OA on their first attempt. Updated for the 2025/2026 academic year. Graded A+ by nursing professionals. Instant PDF download.

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Institución
Pathophysiology
Grado
Pathophysiology

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WGU D115 OA PREP TEST BANK 2025/2026
Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse 150 Questions | Verified Answers
with Rationales | Graded A+ Western Governors
University (WGU) | Updated for 2025/2026



Question 1

What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?

A) Progesterone surge
B) Sudden increase of LH
C) FSH stimulation
D) Estrogen peak

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ovulation generally occurs 12-36 hours after the onset of the LH surge. The LH
surge triggers the final maturation of the oocyte and its release from the ovarian follicle. This is a
critical concept for understanding reproductive pathophysiology .




Question 2

The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida for an amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The
FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:

A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Determine the bilirubin level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio

Correct answer: C

,Rationale: This woman's age puts her at risk for Down syndrome and other chromosomal
abnormalities. Amniocentesis at 16 weeks allows for karyotyping and genetic studies to detect
chromosomal disorders. The L/S ratio is used later in pregnancy to assess fetal lung maturity .




Question 3

Which technique is used for chromosomal abnormality detection at 10 to 12 weeks gestation?

A) Amniocentesis
B) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
C) Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is performed at 10-12 weeks gestation and involves
taking a sample of the chorionic villi (placental tissue) for genetic analysis. It provides earlier
results than amniocentesis but cannot detect neural tube defects .




Question 4

An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident?

A) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B) Estriol
C) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
D) Inhibin A

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in amniotic fluid is a marker for neural tube defects
such as spina bifida and anencephaly. AFP is produced by the fetal yolk sac and liver and leaks
into the amniotic fluid when the neural tube fails to close properly .




Question 5

What is the chromosomal composition of a female with Turner syndrome?

,A) 47,XXY
B) 45,X
C) 47,XY,+21
D) 47,XXX

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Turner syndrome (45,X) results from monosomy of the X chromosome. Affected
individuals are phenotypically female with characteristic features including short stature, webbed
neck, and ovarian dysgenesis. This is the most common sex chromosome abnormality in
females .




Question 6

What is the chromosomal defect in Klinefelter syndrome?

A) 45,X
B) 47,XXY
C) 47,XY,+21
D) 46,XX

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) results from an extra X chromosome in males.
Affected individuals are phenotypically male with tall stature, small testes, gynecomastia, and
infertility. It is the most common sex chromosome abnormality in males .




Question 7

Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a chromosomal defect that is:

A) Inherited from the mother
B) Inherited from the father
C) A result of advanced maternal age
D) A random mutation without parental origin

Correct answer: B

, Rationale: Prader-Willi syndrome results from the loss of expression of paternally inherited
genes on chromosome 15q11.2-q13. This can occur through deletion (most common),
uniparental disomy (both copies from the mother), or imprinting defects. Angelman syndrome
results from loss of maternal expression in the same region .




Question 8

What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?

A) The dominant gene
B) The imprinted gene
C) The recessive gene
D) The mutated gene

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair. Genomic imprinting is an
epigenetic phenomenon that causes genes to be expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific
manner. The imprinted gene is silenced, while the other copy remains active .




Question 9

How do monozygotic and dizygotic twins differ genetically?

A) Monozygotic twins share 100% of DNA; dizygotic twins share ~50% of DNA
B) Monozygotic twins share ~50% of DNA; dizygotic twins share 100% of DNA
C) Both share 100% of DNA
D) Both share ~50% of DNA

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monozygotic (identical) twins develop from one fertilized egg that splits and share
100% of their DNA. Dizygotic (fraternal) twins develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two
separate sperm and share approximately 50% of their DNA, like any other siblings .




Question 10

The SRY gene is located on which chromosome and is responsible for:

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Institución
Pathophysiology
Grado
Pathophysiology

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Subido en
22 de mayo de 2026
Número de páginas
57
Escrito en
2025/2026
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