PRN 1381 Pharmacology Questions and Answers
Q1. Which opioid side effect is most common besides addiction?
A. Respiratory depression
B. Constipation
C. Sedation
D. Hypotension
Rationale: Constipation is the most persistent and common opioid side effect.
Q2. Morphine sulfate can cause which cardiovascular effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Arrhythmia
Rationale: Morphine causes vasodilation leading to hypotension.
Q3. The term for needing higher doses of opioids to achieve the same effect is:
A. Dependence
B. Addiction
C. Tolerance
D. Withdrawal
Rationale: Tolerance occurs when the body adapts, requiring higher doses for the same
effect.
Q4. Naloxone is used to reverse:
A. Constipation
B. Respiratory depression
C. Sedation
D. Hypotension
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses respiratory depression.
Q5. Which opioid is considered the gold standard for severe pain?
A. Codeine
B. Morphine
C. Fentanyl
D. Tramadol
Rationale: Morphine is the prototype opioid for severe pain management.
Q6. Which opioid has the shortest duration of action?
A. Methadone
B. Fentanyl
C. Morphine
D. Oxycodone
Rationale: Fentanyl acts rapidly but has a short duration.
,Q7. The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is:
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Atropine
D. Physostigmine
Rationale: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist.
Q8. Beta‑blockers primarily act on:
A. Alpha receptors
B. Beta receptors
C. Dopamine receptors
D. Serotonin receptors
Rationale: Beta‑blockers inhibit beta‑adrenergic receptors.
Q9. Which drug is used for status epilepticus?
A. Diazepam
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. Valproate
Rationale: Diazepam is first‑line for acute status epilepticus.
Q10. ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by:
A. Blocking calcium channels
B. Inhibiting angiotensin‑converting enzyme
C. Stimulating beta receptors
D. Increasing aldosterone
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent conversion of angiotensin I to II.
Q11. Which antibiotic can cause ototoxicity?
A. Penicillin
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Cephalosporins
D. Macrolides
Rationale: Aminoglycosides damage the auditory nerve.
Q12. Which drug is contraindicated in asthma?
A. Beta‑blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Diuretics
Rationale: Beta‑blockers can cause bronchoconstriction.
Q13. Which diuretic is potassium‑sparing?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
, C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Mannitol
Rationale: Spironolactone conserves potassium.
Q14. Which drug is used in organophosphate poisoning?
A. Atropine
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Diazepam
Rationale: Atropine blocks muscarinic effects of excess acetylcholine.
Q15. Which insulin type has the fastest onset?
A. Regular insulin
B. Lispro
C. NPH
D. Glargine
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid‑acting insulin analog.
Q16. Which drug is used to prevent malaria?
A. Chloroquine
B. Penicillin
C. Rifampin
D. Metronidazole
Rationale: Chloroquine is used for malaria prophylaxis.
Q17. Which drug is used in tuberculosis treatment?
A. Isoniazid
B. Amoxicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Azithromycin
Rationale: Isoniazid is a first‑line anti‑TB drug.
Q18. Which drug is used in hypertension during pregnancy?
A. Methyldopa
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Beta‑blockers
D. Diuretics
Rationale: Methyldopa is safe in pregnancy.
Q19. Which drug is used in acute angina?
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Digoxin
C. Furosemide
D. Aspirin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin provides rapid relief of angina.
Q1. Which opioid side effect is most common besides addiction?
A. Respiratory depression
B. Constipation
C. Sedation
D. Hypotension
Rationale: Constipation is the most persistent and common opioid side effect.
Q2. Morphine sulfate can cause which cardiovascular effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Arrhythmia
Rationale: Morphine causes vasodilation leading to hypotension.
Q3. The term for needing higher doses of opioids to achieve the same effect is:
A. Dependence
B. Addiction
C. Tolerance
D. Withdrawal
Rationale: Tolerance occurs when the body adapts, requiring higher doses for the same
effect.
Q4. Naloxone is used to reverse:
A. Constipation
B. Respiratory depression
C. Sedation
D. Hypotension
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses respiratory depression.
Q5. Which opioid is considered the gold standard for severe pain?
A. Codeine
B. Morphine
C. Fentanyl
D. Tramadol
Rationale: Morphine is the prototype opioid for severe pain management.
Q6. Which opioid has the shortest duration of action?
A. Methadone
B. Fentanyl
C. Morphine
D. Oxycodone
Rationale: Fentanyl acts rapidly but has a short duration.
,Q7. The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is:
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Atropine
D. Physostigmine
Rationale: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist.
Q8. Beta‑blockers primarily act on:
A. Alpha receptors
B. Beta receptors
C. Dopamine receptors
D. Serotonin receptors
Rationale: Beta‑blockers inhibit beta‑adrenergic receptors.
Q9. Which drug is used for status epilepticus?
A. Diazepam
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. Valproate
Rationale: Diazepam is first‑line for acute status epilepticus.
Q10. ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by:
A. Blocking calcium channels
B. Inhibiting angiotensin‑converting enzyme
C. Stimulating beta receptors
D. Increasing aldosterone
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent conversion of angiotensin I to II.
Q11. Which antibiotic can cause ototoxicity?
A. Penicillin
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Cephalosporins
D. Macrolides
Rationale: Aminoglycosides damage the auditory nerve.
Q12. Which drug is contraindicated in asthma?
A. Beta‑blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Diuretics
Rationale: Beta‑blockers can cause bronchoconstriction.
Q13. Which diuretic is potassium‑sparing?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
, C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Mannitol
Rationale: Spironolactone conserves potassium.
Q14. Which drug is used in organophosphate poisoning?
A. Atropine
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Diazepam
Rationale: Atropine blocks muscarinic effects of excess acetylcholine.
Q15. Which insulin type has the fastest onset?
A. Regular insulin
B. Lispro
C. NPH
D. Glargine
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid‑acting insulin analog.
Q16. Which drug is used to prevent malaria?
A. Chloroquine
B. Penicillin
C. Rifampin
D. Metronidazole
Rationale: Chloroquine is used for malaria prophylaxis.
Q17. Which drug is used in tuberculosis treatment?
A. Isoniazid
B. Amoxicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Azithromycin
Rationale: Isoniazid is a first‑line anti‑TB drug.
Q18. Which drug is used in hypertension during pregnancy?
A. Methyldopa
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Beta‑blockers
D. Diuretics
Rationale: Methyldopa is safe in pregnancy.
Q19. Which drug is used in acute angina?
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Digoxin
C. Furosemide
D. Aspirin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin provides rapid relief of angina.
