ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 | Full Test
Bank (Forms A, B & C) with 100% Verified
Questions,
Exam
Questions 1–20
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hour postpartum and notes a large amount of lochia rubra with
clots. The uterus is boggy and displaced to the right. What is the priority action?
A. Perform fundal massage
B. Administer oxytocin
C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
D. Notify the provider
Rationale: A boggy, displaced uterus suggests a full bladder preventing contraction. Massage alone
won’t work until bladder is emptied. Catheterization is the priority before oxytocin or further
interventions.
2. A client with cirrhosis has an ammonia level of 120 mcg/dL (normal 15–60). Which breakfast choice
indicates teaching was effective?
A. Bacon and eggs
B. Oatmeal with fruit
C. Ham and cheese omelet
D. Sausage and hash browns
Rationale: High ammonia requires low protein. Oatmeal and fruit are low in protein. The other options
are high in protein, which worsens encephalopathy.
3. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which finding warrants withholding the
medication?
A. Heart rate 62/min
B. Apical pulse 48/min
C. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Rationale: Hold digoxin for HR <60 in adults (or <50 in some protocols). Bradycardia increases risk of
toxicity.
,4. A client on a mechanical ventilator has a high-pressure alarm. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Sedate the client
B. Suction the endotracheal tube
C. Check for a cuff leak
D. Increase the pressure limit
Rationale: High-pressure alarms最常见 caused by secretions, biting tube, or kinks. Suctioning is first-
line.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will take this medication with food."
B. "I will inject it into my abdomen."
C. "I will massage the site after injection."
D. "I will stop taking aspirin while on this drug."
Rationale: Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is given subcutaneously in the abdomen. Do not massage (risk of
hematoma). Aspirin may be continued but increases bleeding risk — client should inform all providers.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube set to continuous low suction. Which electrolyte
imbalance is most concerning?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Rationale: NG suction removes gastric acid (HCl), leading to metabolic alkalosis and potassium loss.
Hypokalemia is common and can cause arrhythmias.
7. A nurse is assessing a client who recently started haloperidol. Which finding suggests neuroleptic
malignant syndrome (NMS)?
A. Dry mouth and blurred vision
B. Hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity
C. Hypotension and bradycardia
D. Polyuria and polydipsia
Rationale: NMS presents with fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and altered mental status. Dry
mouth/blurred vision are anticholinergic effects.
, 8. A nurse is educating a client with type 1 diabetes about sick-day rules. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will check my blood glucose every 4 hours."
B. "I will stop my insulin if I can't eat."
C. "I will drink 8–12 ounces of sugar-free fluids hourly."
D. "I will call my provider if I have vomiting for more than 6 hours."
Rationale: Never stop insulin during illness — stress hormones raise glucose even without food.
Continue basal insulin.
9. A client is admitted with carbon monoxide poisoning. Which intervention is most important?
A. Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather
B. Initiate hyperbaric oxygen therapy
C. Draw carboxyhemoglobin level
D. Obtain a chest x-ray
Rationale: Hyperbaric oxygen is definitive treatment, but if not immediately available, 100% O2 is first-
line. The question asks “most important” — for severe poisoning, hyperbaric is best. However, many
textbooks say administer 100% O2 first. For ATI style: 100% O2 immediately is initial priority. Let’s
clarify: In ATI, answer is 100% non-rebreather.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which IV solution is compatible?
A. Lactated Ringer’s
B. 0.9% sodium chloride
C. 5% dextrose in water
D. 0.45% sodium chloride
Rationale: Only normal saline is compatible with blood products. Other solutions can cause hemolysis.
11. A nurse is assessing a client with bacterial meningitis. Which finding is expected?
A. Positive Kernig’s sign
B. Flaccid paralysis
C. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
D. Decreased intracranial pressure
Rationale: Kernig’s sign (pain on knee extension) and Brudzinski’s sign are classic for meningeal
irritation.
12. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. Which intervention should the
nurse anticipate?
A. Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. IV calcium gluconate
Bank (Forms A, B & C) with 100% Verified
Questions,
Exam
Questions 1–20
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hour postpartum and notes a large amount of lochia rubra with
clots. The uterus is boggy and displaced to the right. What is the priority action?
A. Perform fundal massage
B. Administer oxytocin
C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
D. Notify the provider
Rationale: A boggy, displaced uterus suggests a full bladder preventing contraction. Massage alone
won’t work until bladder is emptied. Catheterization is the priority before oxytocin or further
interventions.
2. A client with cirrhosis has an ammonia level of 120 mcg/dL (normal 15–60). Which breakfast choice
indicates teaching was effective?
A. Bacon and eggs
B. Oatmeal with fruit
C. Ham and cheese omelet
D. Sausage and hash browns
Rationale: High ammonia requires low protein. Oatmeal and fruit are low in protein. The other options
are high in protein, which worsens encephalopathy.
3. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which finding warrants withholding the
medication?
A. Heart rate 62/min
B. Apical pulse 48/min
C. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Rationale: Hold digoxin for HR <60 in adults (or <50 in some protocols). Bradycardia increases risk of
toxicity.
,4. A client on a mechanical ventilator has a high-pressure alarm. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Sedate the client
B. Suction the endotracheal tube
C. Check for a cuff leak
D. Increase the pressure limit
Rationale: High-pressure alarms最常见 caused by secretions, biting tube, or kinks. Suctioning is first-
line.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will take this medication with food."
B. "I will inject it into my abdomen."
C. "I will massage the site after injection."
D. "I will stop taking aspirin while on this drug."
Rationale: Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is given subcutaneously in the abdomen. Do not massage (risk of
hematoma). Aspirin may be continued but increases bleeding risk — client should inform all providers.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube set to continuous low suction. Which electrolyte
imbalance is most concerning?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Rationale: NG suction removes gastric acid (HCl), leading to metabolic alkalosis and potassium loss.
Hypokalemia is common and can cause arrhythmias.
7. A nurse is assessing a client who recently started haloperidol. Which finding suggests neuroleptic
malignant syndrome (NMS)?
A. Dry mouth and blurred vision
B. Hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity
C. Hypotension and bradycardia
D. Polyuria and polydipsia
Rationale: NMS presents with fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and altered mental status. Dry
mouth/blurred vision are anticholinergic effects.
, 8. A nurse is educating a client with type 1 diabetes about sick-day rules. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will check my blood glucose every 4 hours."
B. "I will stop my insulin if I can't eat."
C. "I will drink 8–12 ounces of sugar-free fluids hourly."
D. "I will call my provider if I have vomiting for more than 6 hours."
Rationale: Never stop insulin during illness — stress hormones raise glucose even without food.
Continue basal insulin.
9. A client is admitted with carbon monoxide poisoning. Which intervention is most important?
A. Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather
B. Initiate hyperbaric oxygen therapy
C. Draw carboxyhemoglobin level
D. Obtain a chest x-ray
Rationale: Hyperbaric oxygen is definitive treatment, but if not immediately available, 100% O2 is first-
line. The question asks “most important” — for severe poisoning, hyperbaric is best. However, many
textbooks say administer 100% O2 first. For ATI style: 100% O2 immediately is initial priority. Let’s
clarify: In ATI, answer is 100% non-rebreather.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which IV solution is compatible?
A. Lactated Ringer’s
B. 0.9% sodium chloride
C. 5% dextrose in water
D. 0.45% sodium chloride
Rationale: Only normal saline is compatible with blood products. Other solutions can cause hemolysis.
11. A nurse is assessing a client with bacterial meningitis. Which finding is expected?
A. Positive Kernig’s sign
B. Flaccid paralysis
C. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
D. Decreased intracranial pressure
Rationale: Kernig’s sign (pain on knee extension) and Brudzinski’s sign are classic for meningeal
irritation.
12. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. Which intervention should the
nurse anticipate?
A. Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. IV calcium gluconate
