NSG 3600 Exam 2 Pediatric Nursing Test Bank |
Questions & Verified Answers 2026/2027 Update
– Galen
Ace your NSG 3600 Exam 2 with this comprehensive, verified question and answer test
bank updated for 2025/2026. This study guide features detailed multiple-choice
questions with bolded answers and comprehensive rationales. Covers high-yield
pediatric topics including congenital heart defects (VSD, Coarctation, Tetralogy of
Fallot), respiratory disorders (RSV, Epiglottitis, Croup), gastrointestinal conditions
(Pyloric Stenosis, Intussusception), and critical developmental milestones. Perfect for
Galen
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of an infant who is receiving digoxin for
heart failure. Which of the following lab values should the nurse report to the provider
immediately?
A) Sodium 138 mEq/L
B) Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C) Glucose 90 mg/dL
D) Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) significantly increases the risk of digoxin
toxicity. The nurse must monitor serum potassium levels closely and report low
values immediately to prevent life-threatening arrhythmias.
2. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). Which of
the following physical assessment findings should the nurse expect?
A) Weak, thready femoral pulses
B) A continuous machinery-like murmur
C) Cyanosis that worsens during crying
D) Decreased systolic blood pressure in the arms
Rationale: A patent ductus arteriosus causes an abnormal connection between the
aorta and the pulmonary artery. This results in a classic, loud, continuous machinery-
like murmur heard throughout both systole and diastole.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of oral digoxin to an 8-month-
old infant. The nurse counts the apical pulse for 1 minute and notes a rate of 82
beats per minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Administer the medication as scheduled.
B) Administer half of the prescribed dose.
C) Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
D) Repeat the apical pulse measurement in 30 minutes.
Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld in an infant if the apical pulse rate is below 90
, to 100 beats per minute. Administering the medication with a low heart rate can
exacerbate bradycardia, indicating potential toxicity.
4. A nurse is assessing a child who has Kawasaki disease. Which of the following
clinical manifestations should the nurse expect during the acute phase?
A) High fever unresponsive to antibiotics, and a strawberry tongue
B) Peeling of the skin on the fingers and toes
C) Formation of coronary artery aneurysms
D) Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Rationale: The acute phase of Kawasaki disease is characterized by a high,
persistent fever lasting more than 5 days that does not respond to antipyretics or
antibiotics, along with inflammation of the mucous membranes, causing a classic
"strawberry tongue."
5. A nurse is planning care for a child who is admitted with acute rheumatic fever.
Which of the following interventions is the priority for this child?
A) Administering a high-protein diet
B) Maintaining strict bed rest to decrease workload on the heart
C) Initiating a heavy physical therapy regimen
D) Applying warm compresses to painful joints
Rationale: Severe inflammation of the heart layers (carditis) is a major manifestation
of rheumatic fever. Strict bed rest is vital to minimize myocardial oxygen demands
and prevent further structural damage to the heart valves.
6. A nurse is teaching the parents of a child with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) about
the pathophysiology of the condition. Which of the following statements should the
nurse include?
A) "Blood shunts from the right ventricle to the left ventricle, causing cyanosis."
B) "Blood shunts from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, increasing
pulmonary blood flow."
C) "There is a strict obstruction of blood flow leaving the left ventricle."
D) "The aorta originates directly from the right ventricle instead of the left."
Rationale: A ventricular septal defect is an acianotic defect with a left-to-right shunt.
Because pressures are higher on the left side of the heart, blood flows through the
hole into the right ventricle, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow.
7. A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child following a cardiac catheterization. Which of
the following post-procedure assessments is the priority?
A) Palpating the dorsalis pedis pulse of the affected extremity
B) Measuring the child's oral temperature
C) Checking the child's pupillary response to light
D) Monitoring the child's urine output for the shift
, Rationale: The primary risk following a cardiac catheterization is arterial occlusion or
hemorrhage at the puncture site. Assessing the pedal pulse distal to the insertion
site ensures adequate peripheral tissue perfusion.
8. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the mother of a child who has undergone
a tonsillectomy. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates an
understanding of the instructions?
A) "I will give my child cherry-flavored gelatin for a snack."
B) "I will contact the doctor immediately if my child swallows frequently."
C) "I will encourage my child to clear their throat often."
D) "I will allow my child to drink juice through a straw."
Rationale: Frequent, continuous swallowing is an early clinical sign of active bleeding
from the surgical site in the post-tonsillectomy period. Straws, red liquids, and throat-
clearing must be avoided to prevent clot dislodgement.
9. A nurse is assessing an infant who is diagnosed with bronchiolitis due to respiratory
syncytial virus (RSV). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Tachypnea, wheezing, and intercostal retractions
B) Barking cough and severe stridor
C) Productive cough with thick, green sputum
D) High fever and a vesicular rash on the chest
Rationale: RSV bronchiolitis causes widespread inflammation and mucus production
in the small airways. This results in respiratory distress signs such as rapid breathing
(tachypnea), wheezing, and visible chest retractions.
10. A nurse is caring for a child who is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation.
Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?
A) Fluticasone propionate via metered-dose inhaler
B) Albuterol via nebulizer
C) Oral prednisone
D) Montelukast chewable tablet
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that acts rapidly as a rescue
bronchodilator. It relaxes airway smooth muscle immediately during an acute asthma
attack, whereas corticosteroids and leukotriene modifiers are for long-term control.
11. A nurse is teaching a group of parents about the risk factors for Sudden Infant Death
Syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "Place the infant to sleep in a prone position."
B) "Keep the infant's crib filled with soft pillows and quilts."
C) "Place the infant to sleep in a supine position on a firm mattress."
D) "Dress the infant in multiple thick layers to maximize warmth."
Rationale: Placing an infant to sleep on their back (supine position) on a flat, firm
, mattress free of loose bedding or soft objects significantly reduces the clinical
incidence and risk of SIDS.
12. A nurse is performing an assessment on a 2-year-old child with cystic fibrosis. Which
of the following clinical findings is a characteristic manifestation of this disease?
A) Frequent watery, blood-tinged stools
B) Steatorrhea and a chronic, productive cough
C) Excessive urinary output and extreme thirst
D) Rapid weight gain and generalized edema
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis causes thick, sticky mucus secretions that plug the
exocrine glands. This blocks pancreatic enzymes, leading to bulky, foul-smelling,
fatty stools (steatorrhea) and chronic pulmonary obstructions.
13. A nurse is planning care for a child who has cystic fibrosis. Which of the following
schedules should the nurse select for administering prescribed pancreatic enzymes?
A) Once daily in the morning before breakfast
B) With every meal and every snack
C) Exactly 2 hours following the completion of meals
D) Only when the child experiences abdominal pain
Rationale: Pancreatic enzymes must be consumed with all meals and snacks to
ensure they mix with food in the duodenum to appropriately digest and absorb fats,
proteins, and fat-soluble vitamins.
14. A nurse is caring for an infant who is suspected of having a diagnosis of
Hirschsprung's disease. Which of the following historical findings should the nurse
expect?
A) Failure to pass meconium within the first 24 to 48 hours of life
B) Frequent episodes of non-bilious projectile vomiting
C) Extreme hunger immediately following a bowel movement
D) Passing dark, tarry stools for the first week of life
Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease is characterized by a congenital absence of
ganglion cells in the distal colon, causing a lack of peristalsis. The primary clinical
presentation is the failure of a newborn to pass meconium within the first 48 hours.
15. A nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant who has a suspected diagnosis of
intussusception. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate?
A) Stools that resemble currant jelly and episodic abdominal pain
B) Ribbon-like, foul-smelling stools
C) Constant, radiating right lower quadrant pain
D) Absence of bowel sounds throughout all abdominal quadrants
Rationale: Intussusception involves the telescoping of one portion of the bowel into
Questions & Verified Answers 2026/2027 Update
– Galen
Ace your NSG 3600 Exam 2 with this comprehensive, verified question and answer test
bank updated for 2025/2026. This study guide features detailed multiple-choice
questions with bolded answers and comprehensive rationales. Covers high-yield
pediatric topics including congenital heart defects (VSD, Coarctation, Tetralogy of
Fallot), respiratory disorders (RSV, Epiglottitis, Croup), gastrointestinal conditions
(Pyloric Stenosis, Intussusception), and critical developmental milestones. Perfect for
Galen
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of an infant who is receiving digoxin for
heart failure. Which of the following lab values should the nurse report to the provider
immediately?
A) Sodium 138 mEq/L
B) Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C) Glucose 90 mg/dL
D) Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) significantly increases the risk of digoxin
toxicity. The nurse must monitor serum potassium levels closely and report low
values immediately to prevent life-threatening arrhythmias.
2. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). Which of
the following physical assessment findings should the nurse expect?
A) Weak, thready femoral pulses
B) A continuous machinery-like murmur
C) Cyanosis that worsens during crying
D) Decreased systolic blood pressure in the arms
Rationale: A patent ductus arteriosus causes an abnormal connection between the
aorta and the pulmonary artery. This results in a classic, loud, continuous machinery-
like murmur heard throughout both systole and diastole.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of oral digoxin to an 8-month-
old infant. The nurse counts the apical pulse for 1 minute and notes a rate of 82
beats per minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Administer the medication as scheduled.
B) Administer half of the prescribed dose.
C) Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
D) Repeat the apical pulse measurement in 30 minutes.
Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld in an infant if the apical pulse rate is below 90
, to 100 beats per minute. Administering the medication with a low heart rate can
exacerbate bradycardia, indicating potential toxicity.
4. A nurse is assessing a child who has Kawasaki disease. Which of the following
clinical manifestations should the nurse expect during the acute phase?
A) High fever unresponsive to antibiotics, and a strawberry tongue
B) Peeling of the skin on the fingers and toes
C) Formation of coronary artery aneurysms
D) Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Rationale: The acute phase of Kawasaki disease is characterized by a high,
persistent fever lasting more than 5 days that does not respond to antipyretics or
antibiotics, along with inflammation of the mucous membranes, causing a classic
"strawberry tongue."
5. A nurse is planning care for a child who is admitted with acute rheumatic fever.
Which of the following interventions is the priority for this child?
A) Administering a high-protein diet
B) Maintaining strict bed rest to decrease workload on the heart
C) Initiating a heavy physical therapy regimen
D) Applying warm compresses to painful joints
Rationale: Severe inflammation of the heart layers (carditis) is a major manifestation
of rheumatic fever. Strict bed rest is vital to minimize myocardial oxygen demands
and prevent further structural damage to the heart valves.
6. A nurse is teaching the parents of a child with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) about
the pathophysiology of the condition. Which of the following statements should the
nurse include?
A) "Blood shunts from the right ventricle to the left ventricle, causing cyanosis."
B) "Blood shunts from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, increasing
pulmonary blood flow."
C) "There is a strict obstruction of blood flow leaving the left ventricle."
D) "The aorta originates directly from the right ventricle instead of the left."
Rationale: A ventricular septal defect is an acianotic defect with a left-to-right shunt.
Because pressures are higher on the left side of the heart, blood flows through the
hole into the right ventricle, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow.
7. A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child following a cardiac catheterization. Which of
the following post-procedure assessments is the priority?
A) Palpating the dorsalis pedis pulse of the affected extremity
B) Measuring the child's oral temperature
C) Checking the child's pupillary response to light
D) Monitoring the child's urine output for the shift
, Rationale: The primary risk following a cardiac catheterization is arterial occlusion or
hemorrhage at the puncture site. Assessing the pedal pulse distal to the insertion
site ensures adequate peripheral tissue perfusion.
8. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the mother of a child who has undergone
a tonsillectomy. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates an
understanding of the instructions?
A) "I will give my child cherry-flavored gelatin for a snack."
B) "I will contact the doctor immediately if my child swallows frequently."
C) "I will encourage my child to clear their throat often."
D) "I will allow my child to drink juice through a straw."
Rationale: Frequent, continuous swallowing is an early clinical sign of active bleeding
from the surgical site in the post-tonsillectomy period. Straws, red liquids, and throat-
clearing must be avoided to prevent clot dislodgement.
9. A nurse is assessing an infant who is diagnosed with bronchiolitis due to respiratory
syncytial virus (RSV). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Tachypnea, wheezing, and intercostal retractions
B) Barking cough and severe stridor
C) Productive cough with thick, green sputum
D) High fever and a vesicular rash on the chest
Rationale: RSV bronchiolitis causes widespread inflammation and mucus production
in the small airways. This results in respiratory distress signs such as rapid breathing
(tachypnea), wheezing, and visible chest retractions.
10. A nurse is caring for a child who is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation.
Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?
A) Fluticasone propionate via metered-dose inhaler
B) Albuterol via nebulizer
C) Oral prednisone
D) Montelukast chewable tablet
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that acts rapidly as a rescue
bronchodilator. It relaxes airway smooth muscle immediately during an acute asthma
attack, whereas corticosteroids and leukotriene modifiers are for long-term control.
11. A nurse is teaching a group of parents about the risk factors for Sudden Infant Death
Syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "Place the infant to sleep in a prone position."
B) "Keep the infant's crib filled with soft pillows and quilts."
C) "Place the infant to sleep in a supine position on a firm mattress."
D) "Dress the infant in multiple thick layers to maximize warmth."
Rationale: Placing an infant to sleep on their back (supine position) on a flat, firm
, mattress free of loose bedding or soft objects significantly reduces the clinical
incidence and risk of SIDS.
12. A nurse is performing an assessment on a 2-year-old child with cystic fibrosis. Which
of the following clinical findings is a characteristic manifestation of this disease?
A) Frequent watery, blood-tinged stools
B) Steatorrhea and a chronic, productive cough
C) Excessive urinary output and extreme thirst
D) Rapid weight gain and generalized edema
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis causes thick, sticky mucus secretions that plug the
exocrine glands. This blocks pancreatic enzymes, leading to bulky, foul-smelling,
fatty stools (steatorrhea) and chronic pulmonary obstructions.
13. A nurse is planning care for a child who has cystic fibrosis. Which of the following
schedules should the nurse select for administering prescribed pancreatic enzymes?
A) Once daily in the morning before breakfast
B) With every meal and every snack
C) Exactly 2 hours following the completion of meals
D) Only when the child experiences abdominal pain
Rationale: Pancreatic enzymes must be consumed with all meals and snacks to
ensure they mix with food in the duodenum to appropriately digest and absorb fats,
proteins, and fat-soluble vitamins.
14. A nurse is caring for an infant who is suspected of having a diagnosis of
Hirschsprung's disease. Which of the following historical findings should the nurse
expect?
A) Failure to pass meconium within the first 24 to 48 hours of life
B) Frequent episodes of non-bilious projectile vomiting
C) Extreme hunger immediately following a bowel movement
D) Passing dark, tarry stools for the first week of life
Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease is characterized by a congenital absence of
ganglion cells in the distal colon, causing a lack of peristalsis. The primary clinical
presentation is the failure of a newborn to pass meconium within the first 48 hours.
15. A nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant who has a suspected diagnosis of
intussusception. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate?
A) Stools that resemble currant jelly and episodic abdominal pain
B) Ribbon-like, foul-smelling stools
C) Constant, radiating right lower quadrant pain
D) Absence of bowel sounds throughout all abdominal quadrants
Rationale: Intussusception involves the telescoping of one portion of the bowel into
