MDC 2 EXAM 1 PRACTICE QUESTIONS | MULTIDIMENSIONAL
CARE II NURSING TEST PREP - 75 UP-TO-DATE ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND 100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS | VERIFIED
ANSWERS - INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
Examiner/Administrator: School of Nursing and Allied Health Sciences
MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE II NURSING
EXAMINATION BOOKLET
Candidate Name: _______________________________________
Candidate ID Number: __________________________________
Date: _________________________________________________
Testing Location/Campus: _______________________________
Instructor/Course Code: ________________________________
Time Allowed: 120 Minutes
Approximate Total Questions: 75
Instructions to Candidates:
• Read each clinical scenario carefully before selecting the best response.
• This assessment evaluates advanced medical-surgical nursing judgment,
prioritization, delegation, pharmacology integration, safety, and evidence-
based nursing care.
• Choose the single best answer for each question unless otherwise indicated.
• Candidates are expected to apply clinical reasoning consistent with second-
level multidimensional nursing care coursework and NCLEX-style critical
thinking standards.
• Electronic devices are prohibited unless approved by faculty.
• Manage time appropriately to complete all approximately 75 questions
within the allotted examination period.
Disclaimer:
This examination is an original educational simulation developed for nursing
test preparation purposes. It is inspired by the structure and rigor commonly
,associated with multidimensional nursing examinations but does not reproduce
any proprietary or secure examination material.
This multidimensional care assessment is designed to evaluate the student
nurse’s ability to integrate pathophysiology, pharmacology, patient safety,
therapeutic communication, clinical prioritization, and collaborative care in
complex adult health situations. Emphasis is placed on recognizing patient
deterioration, implementing evidence-based interventions, and applying
nursing judgment in acute and chronic care environments. Candidates will
encounter progressive clinical scenarios requiring interpretation of laboratory
findings, medication effects, psychosocial considerations, and
interdisciplinary coordination reflective of contemporary nursing practice
standards.
Core Domains and Competency Areas:
• Cardiovascular and Hemodynamic Nursing Care
• Respiratory Disorders and Oxygenation Management
• Renal and Endocrine Dysfunction
• Neurological and Sensory Alterations
• Gastrointestinal and Hepatic Disorders
• Infection Prevention and Sepsis Management
• Pharmacology and Medication Safety
• Prioritization, Delegation, and Clinical Judgment
• Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
• Patient Education and Transitional Care
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client admitted with acute decompensated heart
failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Bilateral 2+ pitting edema in the ankles
B. Blood pressure of 148/88 mm Hg
C. New onset pink frothy sputum with crackles
D. Weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours
Correct Answer: C. New onset pink frothy sputum with crackles
Explanation: Pink frothy sputum and crackles indicate acute pulmonary
edema, a life-threatening complication of heart failure requiring rapid
oxygenation support and possible diuretics or ventilatory intervention. Option A
reflects fluid retention but is not immediately life-threatening. Option B is
elevated but not critical in this context. Option D suggests worsening fluid
volume excess but is less urgent than respiratory compromise.
,Q2. A postoperative client develops sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and
tachycardia after ambulating. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
B. Place the client in high-Fowler position and apply oxygen
C. Encourage use of the incentive spirometer
D. Administer prescribed morphine sulfate
Correct Answer: B. Place the client in high-Fowler position and apply
oxygen
Explanation: The client is demonstrating signs consistent with pulmonary
embolism. Immediate oxygenation and positioning to reduce respiratory
distress are the priority. ECG may be needed later but should not delay
stabilization. Incentive spirometry is ineffective for embolic events. Morphine
may reduce anxiety and pain but is not the first priority intervention.
Q3. A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 6.3
mEq/L. Which ECG change should the nurse anticipate?
A. Prolonged PR interval with flat T waves
B. Tall peaked T waves
C. Presence of U waves
D. ST-segment depression
Correct Answer: B. Tall peaked T waves
Explanation: Hyperkalemia commonly produces tall peaked T waves and
may progress to widened QRS complexes and lethal dysrhythmias. Flat T waves
and U waves are more associated with hypokalemia. ST depression may occur
in ischemia or electrolyte disturbances but is not the hallmark finding here.
Q4. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected meningitis. Which finding
should be reported immediately?
A. Positive Kernig sign
B. Severe headache rated 8/10
, C. Temperature of 101.8°F (38.8°C)
D. Decreasing level of consciousness
Correct Answer: D. Decreasing level of consciousness
Explanation: A declining level of consciousness suggests increasing
intracranial pressure or worsening neurological compromise and requires
immediate intervention. Kernig sign and fever are expected manifestations of
meningitis. Headache is common but less immediately dangerous than
neurological deterioration.
Q5. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis is receiving an insulin infusion. Which
laboratory value requires the nurse’s immediate attention?
A. Sodium 132 mEq/L
B. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L
C. Glucose 260 mg/dL
D. pH 7.31
Correct Answer: B. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L
Explanation: Insulin administration drives potassium into cells, worsening
hypokalemia and increasing risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. Potassium
replacement is essential before continuing aggressive insulin therapy. Mild
hyponatremia and glucose elevation are expected in DKA. A pH of 7.31
indicates mild acidosis but is less immediately dangerous than hypokalemia.
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin therapy for deep vein
thrombosis. Which finding indicates a potential complication?
A. Platelet count of 78,000/mm³
B. INR of 1.4
C. Hemoglobin of 13.5 g/dL
D. aPTT 1.8 times the control value
Correct Answer: A. Platelet count of 78,000/mm³
Explanation: A significant drop in platelets suggests heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious immune-mediated complication associated
CARE II NURSING TEST PREP - 75 UP-TO-DATE ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND 100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS | VERIFIED
ANSWERS - INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
Examiner/Administrator: School of Nursing and Allied Health Sciences
MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE II NURSING
EXAMINATION BOOKLET
Candidate Name: _______________________________________
Candidate ID Number: __________________________________
Date: _________________________________________________
Testing Location/Campus: _______________________________
Instructor/Course Code: ________________________________
Time Allowed: 120 Minutes
Approximate Total Questions: 75
Instructions to Candidates:
• Read each clinical scenario carefully before selecting the best response.
• This assessment evaluates advanced medical-surgical nursing judgment,
prioritization, delegation, pharmacology integration, safety, and evidence-
based nursing care.
• Choose the single best answer for each question unless otherwise indicated.
• Candidates are expected to apply clinical reasoning consistent with second-
level multidimensional nursing care coursework and NCLEX-style critical
thinking standards.
• Electronic devices are prohibited unless approved by faculty.
• Manage time appropriately to complete all approximately 75 questions
within the allotted examination period.
Disclaimer:
This examination is an original educational simulation developed for nursing
test preparation purposes. It is inspired by the structure and rigor commonly
,associated with multidimensional nursing examinations but does not reproduce
any proprietary or secure examination material.
This multidimensional care assessment is designed to evaluate the student
nurse’s ability to integrate pathophysiology, pharmacology, patient safety,
therapeutic communication, clinical prioritization, and collaborative care in
complex adult health situations. Emphasis is placed on recognizing patient
deterioration, implementing evidence-based interventions, and applying
nursing judgment in acute and chronic care environments. Candidates will
encounter progressive clinical scenarios requiring interpretation of laboratory
findings, medication effects, psychosocial considerations, and
interdisciplinary coordination reflective of contemporary nursing practice
standards.
Core Domains and Competency Areas:
• Cardiovascular and Hemodynamic Nursing Care
• Respiratory Disorders and Oxygenation Management
• Renal and Endocrine Dysfunction
• Neurological and Sensory Alterations
• Gastrointestinal and Hepatic Disorders
• Infection Prevention and Sepsis Management
• Pharmacology and Medication Safety
• Prioritization, Delegation, and Clinical Judgment
• Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
• Patient Education and Transitional Care
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client admitted with acute decompensated heart
failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Bilateral 2+ pitting edema in the ankles
B. Blood pressure of 148/88 mm Hg
C. New onset pink frothy sputum with crackles
D. Weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours
Correct Answer: C. New onset pink frothy sputum with crackles
Explanation: Pink frothy sputum and crackles indicate acute pulmonary
edema, a life-threatening complication of heart failure requiring rapid
oxygenation support and possible diuretics or ventilatory intervention. Option A
reflects fluid retention but is not immediately life-threatening. Option B is
elevated but not critical in this context. Option D suggests worsening fluid
volume excess but is less urgent than respiratory compromise.
,Q2. A postoperative client develops sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and
tachycardia after ambulating. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
B. Place the client in high-Fowler position and apply oxygen
C. Encourage use of the incentive spirometer
D. Administer prescribed morphine sulfate
Correct Answer: B. Place the client in high-Fowler position and apply
oxygen
Explanation: The client is demonstrating signs consistent with pulmonary
embolism. Immediate oxygenation and positioning to reduce respiratory
distress are the priority. ECG may be needed later but should not delay
stabilization. Incentive spirometry is ineffective for embolic events. Morphine
may reduce anxiety and pain but is not the first priority intervention.
Q3. A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 6.3
mEq/L. Which ECG change should the nurse anticipate?
A. Prolonged PR interval with flat T waves
B. Tall peaked T waves
C. Presence of U waves
D. ST-segment depression
Correct Answer: B. Tall peaked T waves
Explanation: Hyperkalemia commonly produces tall peaked T waves and
may progress to widened QRS complexes and lethal dysrhythmias. Flat T waves
and U waves are more associated with hypokalemia. ST depression may occur
in ischemia or electrolyte disturbances but is not the hallmark finding here.
Q4. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected meningitis. Which finding
should be reported immediately?
A. Positive Kernig sign
B. Severe headache rated 8/10
, C. Temperature of 101.8°F (38.8°C)
D. Decreasing level of consciousness
Correct Answer: D. Decreasing level of consciousness
Explanation: A declining level of consciousness suggests increasing
intracranial pressure or worsening neurological compromise and requires
immediate intervention. Kernig sign and fever are expected manifestations of
meningitis. Headache is common but less immediately dangerous than
neurological deterioration.
Q5. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis is receiving an insulin infusion. Which
laboratory value requires the nurse’s immediate attention?
A. Sodium 132 mEq/L
B. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L
C. Glucose 260 mg/dL
D. pH 7.31
Correct Answer: B. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L
Explanation: Insulin administration drives potassium into cells, worsening
hypokalemia and increasing risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. Potassium
replacement is essential before continuing aggressive insulin therapy. Mild
hyponatremia and glucose elevation are expected in DKA. A pH of 7.31
indicates mild acidosis but is less immediately dangerous than hypokalemia.
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin therapy for deep vein
thrombosis. Which finding indicates a potential complication?
A. Platelet count of 78,000/mm³
B. INR of 1.4
C. Hemoglobin of 13.5 g/dL
D. aPTT 1.8 times the control value
Correct Answer: A. Platelet count of 78,000/mm³
Explanation: A significant drop in platelets suggests heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious immune-mediated complication associated
