1
NUR202 / NUR 202 Exam 2 Maternal Newborn
Nursing Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Complete
Exam-Style Questions | 100% Verified – Detailed
Rationales – Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Antepartum Care and Fetal Development | Q1 – Q15
Section 2 | Intrapartum Care: Labor and Delivery | Q16 – Q30
Section 3 | Postpartum Care and Newborn Assessment | Q31 – Q45
Section 4 | High-Risk Pregnancy and Complications | Q46 – Q60
Section 5 | Newborn Nutrition, Education, and Discharge | Q61 – Q75
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE AND FETAL DEVELOPMENT
Question 1 of 75
A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation presents to the prenatal clinic for a routine
checkup. She reports feeling occasional fluttering movements in her lower abdomen and asks the
nurse about the significance of this sensation. The nurse explains that this feeling is known as
quickening and typically occurs at this gestational age.
A. This sensation indicates that the placenta is fully functioning
B. Quickening is a definitive sign of fetal distress requiring immediate monitoring
C. This represents the first perception of fetal movement by the mother
D. It signifies that the fetus has reached the stage of viability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Quickening is the maternal perception of active fetal movements and typically occurs
between 16 and 20 weeks in a primigravida. While placental function is crucial, option A is not
the definition of quickening, and option D is incorrect because viability is generally reached at
,2
24 weeks, not 16 weeks. A clinical pearl for students is that multiparas often feel quickening
earlier, around 14 to 16 weeks, due to their familiarity with the sensation.
Question 2 of 75
A 32-year-old multigravida at 28 weeks of gestation arrives for a routine prenatal visit with a
blood pressure reading of 138/88 mm Hg. She denies headaches, visual changes, or epigastric
pain and has no proteinuria on dipstick testing. The nurse must provide education regarding
lifestyle modifications to manage these findings.
A. The nurse should instruct the client to increase her sodium intake to raise blood pressure
B. The nurse should advise the client on dietary modifications and moderate exercise
C. The nurse should prepare the client for immediate induction of labor due to hypertension
D. The nurse should instruct the client to restrict all physical activity until delivery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This client exhibits mild gestational hypertension without severe features or
proteinuria, making lifestyle modifications such as dietary changes and moderate exercise the
appropriate initial management. Increasing sodium intake (A) would worsen hypertension, while
immediate induction (C) or strict bed rest (D) are not indicated for stable, mild gestational
hypertension. A key NCLEX point is that non-pharmacological management is the first-line
intervention for mild blood pressure elevations in pregnancy.
Question 3 of 75
During a prenatal visit at 12 weeks, a 28-year-old client asks the nurse about the purpose of the
Rh (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) injection she is scheduled to receive. The client's blood
type is O negative. The nurse explains that this medication prevents the formation of antibodies.
A. The nurse explains that RhoGAM prevents maternal sensitization to fetal Rh-positive blood
B. The nurse explains that RhoGAM treats existing hemolytic disease in the newborn
,3
C. The nurse explains that RhoGAM converts the mother's blood type to Rh-positive
D. The nurse explains that RhoGAM provides passive immunity against the rubella virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers to prevent the formation of anti-Rh
antibodies that could attack Rh-positive fetal red blood cells in future pregnancies. It does not
treat existing disease (B), change blood type (C), or provide rubella immunity (D). Remember
that RhoGAM is essentially an anti-antibody that stops the immune system from recognizing the
fetal antigen as a threat.
Question 4 of 75
A 20-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks of gestation reports to the clinic nurse that she is
experiencing severe nausea and vomiting, often retching six times a day. She has lost 3 pounds
since her last visit two weeks ago. The nurse recognizes the need to assess for signs of
dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
A. The nurse should reassure the client that this is normal and no action is needed
B. The nurse should instruct the client to take over-the-counter sleep aids
C. The nurse should advise the client to eat three large meals to settle her stomach
D. The nurse should recommend eating small, frequent dry crackers and avoiding spicy foods
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Management of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy involves dietary modifications
such as consuming small, frequent meals of bland foods like dry crackers and avoiding triggers
like spicy or fatty foods. While some nausea is normal, the severity described requires
intervention rather than just reassurance (A), sleep aids (B) are not the primary treatment, and
large meals (C) often exacerbate symptoms. A clinical pearl is that separating solids from liquids
can significantly reduce nausea in the first trimester.
Question 5 of 75
, 4
A 29-year-old client at 20 weeks of gestation is concerned about gaining too much weight during
her pregnancy. Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 22, placing her in the normal weight category. The
nurse provides education regarding the recommended total weight gain for her pregnancy.
A. The nurse informs the client that she should gain approximately 11 to 20 pounds
B. The nurse informs the client that she should gain approximately 25 to 35 pounds
C. The nurse informs the client that she should gain approximately 28 to 40 pounds
D. The nurse informs the client that she should restrict caloric intake to maintain her current
weight
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a client with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5–24.9), the recommended total
weight gain is between 25 and 35 pounds. Options A and C correspond to underweight and obese
categories respectively, while option D is unsafe as pregnancy requires caloric adequacy.
Students should remember that underweight clients need to gain more, while overweight clients
need to gain less, to optimize fetal outcomes.
Question 6 of 75
A 35-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks of gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit
complaining of regular, painful contractions every 5 minutes. On examination, her cervix is
dilated 2 cm and 50% effaced. The physician orders a course of betamethasone. The nurse
understands that this medication is administered to accelerate fetal lung maturity.
A. The nurse explains that this medication will stop the labor contractions immediately
B. The nurse explains that this medication helps mature the fetal lungs to prevent respiratory
distress
C. The nurse explains that this medication treats maternal Group B Streptococcus infection
D. The nurse explains that this medication will increase the fetal heart rate
NUR202 / NUR 202 Exam 2 Maternal Newborn
Nursing Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Complete
Exam-Style Questions | 100% Verified – Detailed
Rationales – Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Antepartum Care and Fetal Development | Q1 – Q15
Section 2 | Intrapartum Care: Labor and Delivery | Q16 – Q30
Section 3 | Postpartum Care and Newborn Assessment | Q31 – Q45
Section 4 | High-Risk Pregnancy and Complications | Q46 – Q60
Section 5 | Newborn Nutrition, Education, and Discharge | Q61 – Q75
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE AND FETAL DEVELOPMENT
Question 1 of 75
A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation presents to the prenatal clinic for a routine
checkup. She reports feeling occasional fluttering movements in her lower abdomen and asks the
nurse about the significance of this sensation. The nurse explains that this feeling is known as
quickening and typically occurs at this gestational age.
A. This sensation indicates that the placenta is fully functioning
B. Quickening is a definitive sign of fetal distress requiring immediate monitoring
C. This represents the first perception of fetal movement by the mother
D. It signifies that the fetus has reached the stage of viability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Quickening is the maternal perception of active fetal movements and typically occurs
between 16 and 20 weeks in a primigravida. While placental function is crucial, option A is not
the definition of quickening, and option D is incorrect because viability is generally reached at
,2
24 weeks, not 16 weeks. A clinical pearl for students is that multiparas often feel quickening
earlier, around 14 to 16 weeks, due to their familiarity with the sensation.
Question 2 of 75
A 32-year-old multigravida at 28 weeks of gestation arrives for a routine prenatal visit with a
blood pressure reading of 138/88 mm Hg. She denies headaches, visual changes, or epigastric
pain and has no proteinuria on dipstick testing. The nurse must provide education regarding
lifestyle modifications to manage these findings.
A. The nurse should instruct the client to increase her sodium intake to raise blood pressure
B. The nurse should advise the client on dietary modifications and moderate exercise
C. The nurse should prepare the client for immediate induction of labor due to hypertension
D. The nurse should instruct the client to restrict all physical activity until delivery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This client exhibits mild gestational hypertension without severe features or
proteinuria, making lifestyle modifications such as dietary changes and moderate exercise the
appropriate initial management. Increasing sodium intake (A) would worsen hypertension, while
immediate induction (C) or strict bed rest (D) are not indicated for stable, mild gestational
hypertension. A key NCLEX point is that non-pharmacological management is the first-line
intervention for mild blood pressure elevations in pregnancy.
Question 3 of 75
During a prenatal visit at 12 weeks, a 28-year-old client asks the nurse about the purpose of the
Rh (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) injection she is scheduled to receive. The client's blood
type is O negative. The nurse explains that this medication prevents the formation of antibodies.
A. The nurse explains that RhoGAM prevents maternal sensitization to fetal Rh-positive blood
B. The nurse explains that RhoGAM treats existing hemolytic disease in the newborn
,3
C. The nurse explains that RhoGAM converts the mother's blood type to Rh-positive
D. The nurse explains that RhoGAM provides passive immunity against the rubella virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers to prevent the formation of anti-Rh
antibodies that could attack Rh-positive fetal red blood cells in future pregnancies. It does not
treat existing disease (B), change blood type (C), or provide rubella immunity (D). Remember
that RhoGAM is essentially an anti-antibody that stops the immune system from recognizing the
fetal antigen as a threat.
Question 4 of 75
A 20-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks of gestation reports to the clinic nurse that she is
experiencing severe nausea and vomiting, often retching six times a day. She has lost 3 pounds
since her last visit two weeks ago. The nurse recognizes the need to assess for signs of
dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
A. The nurse should reassure the client that this is normal and no action is needed
B. The nurse should instruct the client to take over-the-counter sleep aids
C. The nurse should advise the client to eat three large meals to settle her stomach
D. The nurse should recommend eating small, frequent dry crackers and avoiding spicy foods
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Management of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy involves dietary modifications
such as consuming small, frequent meals of bland foods like dry crackers and avoiding triggers
like spicy or fatty foods. While some nausea is normal, the severity described requires
intervention rather than just reassurance (A), sleep aids (B) are not the primary treatment, and
large meals (C) often exacerbate symptoms. A clinical pearl is that separating solids from liquids
can significantly reduce nausea in the first trimester.
Question 5 of 75
, 4
A 29-year-old client at 20 weeks of gestation is concerned about gaining too much weight during
her pregnancy. Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 22, placing her in the normal weight category. The
nurse provides education regarding the recommended total weight gain for her pregnancy.
A. The nurse informs the client that she should gain approximately 11 to 20 pounds
B. The nurse informs the client that she should gain approximately 25 to 35 pounds
C. The nurse informs the client that she should gain approximately 28 to 40 pounds
D. The nurse informs the client that she should restrict caloric intake to maintain her current
weight
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a client with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5–24.9), the recommended total
weight gain is between 25 and 35 pounds. Options A and C correspond to underweight and obese
categories respectively, while option D is unsafe as pregnancy requires caloric adequacy.
Students should remember that underweight clients need to gain more, while overweight clients
need to gain less, to optimize fetal outcomes.
Question 6 of 75
A 35-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks of gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit
complaining of regular, painful contractions every 5 minutes. On examination, her cervix is
dilated 2 cm and 50% effaced. The physician orders a course of betamethasone. The nurse
understands that this medication is administered to accelerate fetal lung maturity.
A. The nurse explains that this medication will stop the labor contractions immediately
B. The nurse explains that this medication helps mature the fetal lungs to prevent respiratory
distress
C. The nurse explains that this medication treats maternal Group B Streptococcus infection
D. The nurse explains that this medication will increase the fetal heart rate
