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NSG 4100- Adult Health III Assessment 1- 8 Review Questions with Complete Solutions|Accurate|Verified

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NSG 4100- Adult Health III Assessment 1- 8 Review Questions with Complete Solutions

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NSG 4100- Adult Health III Assessment 1- 8 Review
Questions with Complete Solutions

Content

Renal
Endocrine/metabolic
Cardiac perfusion
Neurological emergencies


Q1: A patient with end-stage renal disease has elevated potassium. What is the
priority intervention?

Answer: Administer IV insulin with glucose.

Rationale: Insulin drives potassium into cells, lowering serum levels quickly. Glucose
prevents hypoglycemia. Dialysis is definitive but not immediate.

Q2: Which lab finding indicates worsening renal function?

Answer: Rising serum creatinine.

Rationale: Creatinine is the most reliable indicator of renal function decline compared
to BUN, which can be influenced by hydration.

Q3: A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) presents with Kussmaul respirations.
What is the underlying cause?

Answer: Metabolic acidosis.

Rationale: Deep, rapid breathing is the body’s compensatory mechanism to blow off
CO₂ and correct acidosis.

Q4: Which finding requires immediate intervention in a patient with SIADH?

Answer: Serum sodium of 118 mEq/L.

Rationale: Severe hyponatremia can cause seizures and cerebral edema; hypertonic
saline may be indicated.

Q5: A patient with an arterial line develops sudden restlessness and hypotension. What
should the nurse suspect?

,Answer: Air embolism.

Rationale: Restlessness and hypotension are early signs; immediate action is to place
the patient in Trendelenburg and notify provider.

Q6: Which ECG change is most concerning in acute myocardial infarction?

Answer: ST-segment elevation.

Rationale: Indicates ongoing injury to myocardium; requires rapid reperfusion therapy
(PCI or thrombolytics).

Q7: A patient with a traumatic brain injury has unequal pupils. What is the priority
action?

Answer: Notify provider immediately.

Rationale: Unequal pupils suggest increased intracranial pressure or herniation—life-
threatening emergency.

Q8: Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with spinal cord injury at T4
experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?

Answer: Sit the patient upright and check for bladder distention.

Rationale: Elevating head reduces blood pressure; bladder distention is a common
trigger.

Q9. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. He becomes
increasingly drowsy. What is the priority action?

Answer: Lower oxygen flow rate.

Rationale: High oxygen can suppress hypoxic drive, leading to CO₂ retention and
narcosis. Oxygen must be titrated carefully.

Q10. Which finding indicates effective teaching for a patient with asthma using a
metered-dose inhaler?

Answer: Patient waits one minute between puffs.

Rationale: This allows proper absorption and improves the effectiveness of the second
dose.

Q11. A patient with sickle cell crisis reports severe pain. What is the most appropriate
nursing intervention?

, Answer: Administer prescribed opioid analgesics.

Rationale: Pain is due to vaso-occlusion; opioids are necessary. Hydration and oxygen
are supportive but not immediate relief.

Q12. Which lab result requires immediate intervention in a patient receiving
chemotherapy?

Answer: Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 400.

Rationale: Severe neutropenia places the patient at high infection risk; protective
isolation and infection prevention are critical.

Q13. A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops shallow respirations and weak
cough. What is the priority action?

Answer: Prepare for intubation.

Rationale: Progressive paralysis can impair respiratory muscles; airway protection is
essential.

Q14. Which finding suggests increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Answer: Cushing’s triad (bradycardia, hypertension, irregular respirations).

Rationale: This is a classic late sign of ICP requiring urgent intervention.

Q15. A patient with heart failure reports sudden weight gain of 5 pounds in 2 days. What
should the nurse do?

Answer: Notify provider immediately.

Rationale: Rapid weight gain indicates fluid retention and worsening heart failure.

Q16. A patient with pneumonia suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain and absent
breath sounds on one side. What is the priority action?

Answer: Suspect pneumothorax and notify provider.

Rationale: Sudden unilateral absent breath sounds indicate lung collapse requiring
urgent intervention.

Q17. Which ABG result indicates respiratory acidosis?

Answer: pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg.

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Subido en
1 de mayo de 2026
Número de páginas
28
Escrito en
2025/2026
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