PN Comprehensive Online Practice Form A (2025) – Practice Test (150 Questions
– Latest Update | Already Graded A+)
Safe and Effective Care Environment (Management of Care & Safety/Infection
Control)
The charge nurse is making client assignments for the shift. Which client is most
appropriate to assign to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
A. A client who is 2 hours post-op following a thoracotomy and requires chest tube
monitoring.
B. A client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus who needs discharge
teaching on insulin administration.
C. A client with heart failure who is receiving IV furosemide and needs a focused
assessment.
D. A client who is 1 day post-op following a total hip replacement and requires pain
medication and vital signs.
D
1. Assigning a stable post-op client to an LPN is appropriate. The LPN can
administer pain medication and monitor vital signs, reporting changes to the
RN. New admissions, unstable clients, and complex discharge teaching
requiring assessment require the RN scope of practice.
A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task
should the nurse delegate?
A. Measuring the intake and output for a client with a foley catheter.
B. Assessing a client's readiness for discharge.
C. Instructing a client on a low-sodium diet.
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a pain medication.
A
2. Measuring intake and output is a standardized, repetitive task that can be
delegated to a UAP. Teaching, assessing, and evaluating are within the scope
of practice of a licensed nurse (RN or LPN).
A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with type 2 diabetes who has a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
B. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation who reports feeling palpitations.
C. A client who is 1 day post-op from a cholecystectomy and has a temperature of
100.4°F (38°C).
,D. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has an oxygen
saturation of 94% on room air.
B
3. Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework,
palpitations in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation indicate a potential
cardiac dysrhythmia, which is a circulatory compromise and the highest
priority. The other clients have chronic or less acute findings.
The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record (MAR) for a client.
Which of the following entries requires immediate follow-up by the nurse?
A. Metoprolol 25 mg PO daily at 0800.
B. Furosemide 40 mg PO daily at 0800.
C. Potassium chloride 40 mEq PO daily at 0800.
D. Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily at 0800.
C
4. Potassium chloride 40 mEq is a high dose for a single oral administration and
can cause severe hyperkalemia, leading to cardiac arrest. The nurse must
verify this order with the prescribing provider before administering, as
standard oral doses are usually 20-40 mEq given in divided doses or IV.
A client with a fractured femur is placed in Buck's traction. The client's family asks
the nurse what the purpose of the traction is. What is the best response by the
nurse?
A. "It is used to immobilize the fracture and reduce muscle spasms."
B. "It is used to realign the broken bone perfectly."
C. "It is used to prepare the client for physical therapy."
D. "It is used to prevent infection at the fracture site."
A
5. Buck's traction is a type of skin traction used primarily to immobilize a lower
extremity fracture, reduce muscle spasms, and decrease pain. It does not
realign the bone (reduction requires skeletal traction or surgery).
A client states, "I do not want to take my medication today." Which response by the
nurse demonstrates the ethical principle of autonomy?
A. "You must take it because the doctor ordered it."
B. "I will document your refusal and notify your healthcare provider."
C. "If you don't take it, you will get sicker."
D. "Let me call your family to force you to take it."
B
, 6. Autonomy is the right of the client to make decisions about their own care,
including the right to refuse treatment. The nurse must respect this right,
document the refusal, and notify the provider, while ensuring the client
understands the consequences.
The nurse is caring for a client who is on airborne precautions due to suspected
tuberculosis (TB). Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is required when
entering the client's room?
A. N95 respirator mask, gown, and gloves.
B. Surgical mask, gown, and gloves.
C. N95 respirator mask and eye protection.
D. Surgical mask and gloves.
A
7. Airborne precautions require the use of an N95 respirator or higher-level
respirator to filter out tiny airborne particles. Gown and gloves are required
based on Standard Precautions due to anticipated contact with the client or
the environment.
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most
important to verify prior to starting the transfusion?
A. The client has eaten a meal within the last hour.
B. The client's temperature is less than 100.4°F (38°C).
C. The blood product and the client's identification using two unique identifiers.
D. The client has a functioning IV catheter in their forearm.
C
8. Patient safety is the priority. The most critical step before any blood product
administration is verifying the right patient using two unique identifiers (e.g.,
name and date of birth) and matching it to the blood product label to prevent a
fatal transfusion reaction.
Select all that apply. A nurse is orienting a new graduate nurse to the facility's
policies on restraints. Which of the following statements by the new graduate
indicate a need for further teaching?
A. "I should document the client's behavior that necessitated the restraint."
B. "I can apply the restraint if I think the client might fall out of bed."
C. "I should release the restraint at least every 2 hours to check skin integrity."
D. "I need to obtain a provider's order for the restraint."
E. "I should tie the restraint to the side rail for safety."
B, E
9. Restraints can only be applied with a valid medical order, never PRN (as
needed) or based solely on the nurse's judgment. Restraints must never be
, tied to a movable bed part, such as a side rail, because this can cause
strangulation or injury if the rail is lowered. Documentation, releasing every 2
hours (or per facility policy), and obtaining an order are all correct.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had a colon resection.
Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will avoid lifting heavy objects."
B. "I will take my pain medication before the pain becomes severe."
C. "I will eat a low-fiber diet to rest my bowels."
D. "I will call my doctor if I develop a fever."
C
10.Following a colon resection, a high-fiber diet is encouraged to promote normal
bowel movements and prevent constipation, which could strain the
anastomosis. A low-fiber diet is contraindicated post-bowel surgery unless
specifically ordered for a complication.
A client is being discharged home with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin).
Which statement should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A. "Eat a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables."
B. "Use an electric razor to prevent bleeding."
C. "Take aspirin daily for heart health."
D. "Avoid any form of alcohol."
A
11.Clients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K (found in
green leafy vegetables) because sudden changes can alter their INR levels.
While using an electric razor is good practice, the primary dietary teaching is
consistency with vitamin K. Aspirin should be avoided unless prescribed due
to bleeding risk. Occasional alcohol is generally permitted, but binge drinking
should be avoided.
A client has a stage III pressure injury on the sacrum. Which intervention should the
nurse implement?
A. Massage the area around the wound to increase circulation.
B. Place the client in a side-lying position at a 30-degree angle to relieve pressure on
the sacrum.
C. Apply a dry, sterile gauze dressing to keep the wound dry.
D. Perform vigorous cleaning with hydrogen peroxide to prevent infection.
B
12.The 30-degree lateral position is an evidence-based intervention to offload
pressure from the sacrum. Massaging reddened or injured skin damages
underlying tissue. Stage III wounds require a moist wound healing
– Latest Update | Already Graded A+)
Safe and Effective Care Environment (Management of Care & Safety/Infection
Control)
The charge nurse is making client assignments for the shift. Which client is most
appropriate to assign to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
A. A client who is 2 hours post-op following a thoracotomy and requires chest tube
monitoring.
B. A client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus who needs discharge
teaching on insulin administration.
C. A client with heart failure who is receiving IV furosemide and needs a focused
assessment.
D. A client who is 1 day post-op following a total hip replacement and requires pain
medication and vital signs.
D
1. Assigning a stable post-op client to an LPN is appropriate. The LPN can
administer pain medication and monitor vital signs, reporting changes to the
RN. New admissions, unstable clients, and complex discharge teaching
requiring assessment require the RN scope of practice.
A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task
should the nurse delegate?
A. Measuring the intake and output for a client with a foley catheter.
B. Assessing a client's readiness for discharge.
C. Instructing a client on a low-sodium diet.
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a pain medication.
A
2. Measuring intake and output is a standardized, repetitive task that can be
delegated to a UAP. Teaching, assessing, and evaluating are within the scope
of practice of a licensed nurse (RN or LPN).
A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with type 2 diabetes who has a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
B. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation who reports feeling palpitations.
C. A client who is 1 day post-op from a cholecystectomy and has a temperature of
100.4°F (38°C).
,D. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has an oxygen
saturation of 94% on room air.
B
3. Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework,
palpitations in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation indicate a potential
cardiac dysrhythmia, which is a circulatory compromise and the highest
priority. The other clients have chronic or less acute findings.
The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record (MAR) for a client.
Which of the following entries requires immediate follow-up by the nurse?
A. Metoprolol 25 mg PO daily at 0800.
B. Furosemide 40 mg PO daily at 0800.
C. Potassium chloride 40 mEq PO daily at 0800.
D. Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily at 0800.
C
4. Potassium chloride 40 mEq is a high dose for a single oral administration and
can cause severe hyperkalemia, leading to cardiac arrest. The nurse must
verify this order with the prescribing provider before administering, as
standard oral doses are usually 20-40 mEq given in divided doses or IV.
A client with a fractured femur is placed in Buck's traction. The client's family asks
the nurse what the purpose of the traction is. What is the best response by the
nurse?
A. "It is used to immobilize the fracture and reduce muscle spasms."
B. "It is used to realign the broken bone perfectly."
C. "It is used to prepare the client for physical therapy."
D. "It is used to prevent infection at the fracture site."
A
5. Buck's traction is a type of skin traction used primarily to immobilize a lower
extremity fracture, reduce muscle spasms, and decrease pain. It does not
realign the bone (reduction requires skeletal traction or surgery).
A client states, "I do not want to take my medication today." Which response by the
nurse demonstrates the ethical principle of autonomy?
A. "You must take it because the doctor ordered it."
B. "I will document your refusal and notify your healthcare provider."
C. "If you don't take it, you will get sicker."
D. "Let me call your family to force you to take it."
B
, 6. Autonomy is the right of the client to make decisions about their own care,
including the right to refuse treatment. The nurse must respect this right,
document the refusal, and notify the provider, while ensuring the client
understands the consequences.
The nurse is caring for a client who is on airborne precautions due to suspected
tuberculosis (TB). Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is required when
entering the client's room?
A. N95 respirator mask, gown, and gloves.
B. Surgical mask, gown, and gloves.
C. N95 respirator mask and eye protection.
D. Surgical mask and gloves.
A
7. Airborne precautions require the use of an N95 respirator or higher-level
respirator to filter out tiny airborne particles. Gown and gloves are required
based on Standard Precautions due to anticipated contact with the client or
the environment.
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most
important to verify prior to starting the transfusion?
A. The client has eaten a meal within the last hour.
B. The client's temperature is less than 100.4°F (38°C).
C. The blood product and the client's identification using two unique identifiers.
D. The client has a functioning IV catheter in their forearm.
C
8. Patient safety is the priority. The most critical step before any blood product
administration is verifying the right patient using two unique identifiers (e.g.,
name and date of birth) and matching it to the blood product label to prevent a
fatal transfusion reaction.
Select all that apply. A nurse is orienting a new graduate nurse to the facility's
policies on restraints. Which of the following statements by the new graduate
indicate a need for further teaching?
A. "I should document the client's behavior that necessitated the restraint."
B. "I can apply the restraint if I think the client might fall out of bed."
C. "I should release the restraint at least every 2 hours to check skin integrity."
D. "I need to obtain a provider's order for the restraint."
E. "I should tie the restraint to the side rail for safety."
B, E
9. Restraints can only be applied with a valid medical order, never PRN (as
needed) or based solely on the nurse's judgment. Restraints must never be
, tied to a movable bed part, such as a side rail, because this can cause
strangulation or injury if the rail is lowered. Documentation, releasing every 2
hours (or per facility policy), and obtaining an order are all correct.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had a colon resection.
Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will avoid lifting heavy objects."
B. "I will take my pain medication before the pain becomes severe."
C. "I will eat a low-fiber diet to rest my bowels."
D. "I will call my doctor if I develop a fever."
C
10.Following a colon resection, a high-fiber diet is encouraged to promote normal
bowel movements and prevent constipation, which could strain the
anastomosis. A low-fiber diet is contraindicated post-bowel surgery unless
specifically ordered for a complication.
A client is being discharged home with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin).
Which statement should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A. "Eat a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables."
B. "Use an electric razor to prevent bleeding."
C. "Take aspirin daily for heart health."
D. "Avoid any form of alcohol."
A
11.Clients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K (found in
green leafy vegetables) because sudden changes can alter their INR levels.
While using an electric razor is good practice, the primary dietary teaching is
consistency with vitamin K. Aspirin should be avoided unless prescribed due
to bleeding risk. Occasional alcohol is generally permitted, but binge drinking
should be avoided.
A client has a stage III pressure injury on the sacrum. Which intervention should the
nurse implement?
A. Massage the area around the wound to increase circulation.
B. Place the client in a side-lying position at a 30-degree angle to relieve pressure on
the sacrum.
C. Apply a dry, sterile gauze dressing to keep the wound dry.
D. Perform vigorous cleaning with hydrogen peroxide to prevent infection.
B
12.The 30-degree lateral position is an evidence-based intervention to offload
pressure from the sacrum. Massaging reddened or injured skin damages
underlying tissue. Stage III wounds require a moist wound healing
