1
SEVI Test 2 Welsh Exam Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified –
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Q1: A 5-year-old Welsh Mountain pony presents with acute onset of severe pruritus, alopecia,
and crusting lesions primarily on the face and distal limbs. The lesions are hyperkeratotic and
appear painful. Skin scrapings reveal large numbers of mites with long, unjointed stalks. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sarcoptic mange (Sarcoptes scabiei)
B. Psoroptic mange (Psoroptes ovis)
C. Chorioptic mange (Chorioptes bovis) [CORRECT]
D. Demodectic mange (Demodex equi)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Chorioptes bovis mites are characterized by long, unjointed
stalks and typically infest the distal limbs and face of horses and ponies, causing intense
pruritus and crusting. This matches the clinical presentation and diagnostic findings
specific to this mite species.
Q2: [Data Question] The following table shows the results of a BVDV antigen ELISA test on a
batch of 20 calves in a Welsh beef herd:
Sample ID Result (S/P Ratio) Interpretation
1-5 0.1 - 0.3 Negative
6-10 0.4 - 0.6 Suspect
11-15 1.2 - 2.5 Positive
16-20 0.2 - 0.3 Negative
What is the prevalence of persistent infection (PI) carriers in this batch based on a single positive
test?
A. 10%
,2
B. 15%
C. 25% [CORRECT]
D. 50%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because 5 out of 20 calves tested positive (Samples 11-15), which
calculates to 25% prevalence. This matches the standard method for calculating disease
prevalence in a cohort based on diagnostic test results.
Q3: Under the Animal Welfare Act 2006, which of the following constitutes an offense of
"unnecessary suffering"?
A. Administering a vaccine that causes transient soreness
B. Performing a surgical castration without analgesia in a 7-day-old lamb
C. Failing to provide treatment for a severe, treatable lameness in a working sheepdog
[CORRECT]
D. Transporting an animal that is fit and healthy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because failing to alleviate pain or distress from a treatable condition is
defined as unnecessary suffering under the Act. This matches the legal duty of care to
prevent avoidable pain and suffering.
Q4: A 4-year-old Border Collie presents with acute collapse, pale mucous membranes, and a
distended abdomen. The owner reports the dog was playing vigorously 30 minutes ago. On
radiographs, you see a "double bubble" sign in the cranial abdomen. What is the immediate
priority?
A. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
B. Perform an abdominal ultrasound
C. Stabilize for emergency exploratory laparotomy [CORRECT]
D. Induce emesis to decompress the stomach
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the "double bubble" sign and clinical history are
pathognomonic for Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus (GDV), a life-threatening emergency
requiring immediate surgical intervention. Priority is to address the circulatory shock and
torsion before irreversible necrosis occurs.
Q5: Which pharmacological agent is the antidote for xylazine (an alpha-2 agonist) overdose in a
cow?
A. Atropine
B. Flumazenil
C. Yohimbine or Tolazoline [CORRECT]
D. Naloxone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because yohimbine and tolazoline are specific alpha-2 adrenergic
, 3
antagonists that reverse the sedative and cardiovascular effects of xylazine. This matches
the standard toxicology protocol for reversing alpha-2 agonist toxicity in ruminants.
Q6: In the context of the Welsh Government's TB eradication program, what is the standard
interpretation of a "Standard" skin test reactor in a cattle herd?
A. Any increase in skin fold thickness >1mm
B. Any increase in skin fold thickness >2mm
C. Any increase in skin fold thickness >4mm [CORRECT]
D. Presence of clinical signs of TB
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the standard interpretation for a positive reactor in the UK and
Wales is an increase in skin fold thickness of more than 4mm. This matches the official
APHA testing guidelines for bovine tuberculosis surveillance.
Q7: A neonatal calf is presented with failure of passive transfer (FPT). The serum total protein is
4.0 g/dL. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A. Oral administration of colostrum replacer
B. Intravenous administration of hyperimmune plasma or plasma transfusion [CORRECT]
C. Subcutaneous administration of antibiotics
D. Isolation and observation only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a serum total protein of 4.0 g/dL indicates FPT, and
intravenous plasma is required to provide systemic immunity since the calf can no longer
absorb macromolecules via the gut. This matches the standard of care for FPT in neonates
>24 hours old.
Q8: [Mini-Case] A 6-year-old Welsh Cob mare is 320 days pregnant. She presents with acute
onset of colic, sweating, and lying down frequently. On transrectal palpation, you feel a distinct
band of tissue and the uterus is enlarged and tense. The fetal heart rate is 120 bpm (normal is 80-
100 bpm). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Uterine torsion
B. Pre-pubic tendon rupture
C. Premature placental separation (Red Bag) [CORRECT]
D. Dystocia due to fetal malposture
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the palpable band of tissue (chorioallantois), tense uterus, and
elevated fetal heart rate indicate premature separation of the placenta. This matches the
classic clinical signs of "Red Bag" delivery, which is an obstetric emergency.
Q9: Which of the following is a notifiable disease in Wales that requires immediate reporting to
the Animal and Plant Health Agency (APHA)?
A. Bovine Viral Diarrhoea (BVD)
SEVI Test 2 Welsh Exam Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified –
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Q1: A 5-year-old Welsh Mountain pony presents with acute onset of severe pruritus, alopecia,
and crusting lesions primarily on the face and distal limbs. The lesions are hyperkeratotic and
appear painful. Skin scrapings reveal large numbers of mites with long, unjointed stalks. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sarcoptic mange (Sarcoptes scabiei)
B. Psoroptic mange (Psoroptes ovis)
C. Chorioptic mange (Chorioptes bovis) [CORRECT]
D. Demodectic mange (Demodex equi)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Chorioptes bovis mites are characterized by long, unjointed
stalks and typically infest the distal limbs and face of horses and ponies, causing intense
pruritus and crusting. This matches the clinical presentation and diagnostic findings
specific to this mite species.
Q2: [Data Question] The following table shows the results of a BVDV antigen ELISA test on a
batch of 20 calves in a Welsh beef herd:
Sample ID Result (S/P Ratio) Interpretation
1-5 0.1 - 0.3 Negative
6-10 0.4 - 0.6 Suspect
11-15 1.2 - 2.5 Positive
16-20 0.2 - 0.3 Negative
What is the prevalence of persistent infection (PI) carriers in this batch based on a single positive
test?
A. 10%
,2
B. 15%
C. 25% [CORRECT]
D. 50%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because 5 out of 20 calves tested positive (Samples 11-15), which
calculates to 25% prevalence. This matches the standard method for calculating disease
prevalence in a cohort based on diagnostic test results.
Q3: Under the Animal Welfare Act 2006, which of the following constitutes an offense of
"unnecessary suffering"?
A. Administering a vaccine that causes transient soreness
B. Performing a surgical castration without analgesia in a 7-day-old lamb
C. Failing to provide treatment for a severe, treatable lameness in a working sheepdog
[CORRECT]
D. Transporting an animal that is fit and healthy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because failing to alleviate pain or distress from a treatable condition is
defined as unnecessary suffering under the Act. This matches the legal duty of care to
prevent avoidable pain and suffering.
Q4: A 4-year-old Border Collie presents with acute collapse, pale mucous membranes, and a
distended abdomen. The owner reports the dog was playing vigorously 30 minutes ago. On
radiographs, you see a "double bubble" sign in the cranial abdomen. What is the immediate
priority?
A. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
B. Perform an abdominal ultrasound
C. Stabilize for emergency exploratory laparotomy [CORRECT]
D. Induce emesis to decompress the stomach
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the "double bubble" sign and clinical history are
pathognomonic for Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus (GDV), a life-threatening emergency
requiring immediate surgical intervention. Priority is to address the circulatory shock and
torsion before irreversible necrosis occurs.
Q5: Which pharmacological agent is the antidote for xylazine (an alpha-2 agonist) overdose in a
cow?
A. Atropine
B. Flumazenil
C. Yohimbine or Tolazoline [CORRECT]
D. Naloxone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because yohimbine and tolazoline are specific alpha-2 adrenergic
, 3
antagonists that reverse the sedative and cardiovascular effects of xylazine. This matches
the standard toxicology protocol for reversing alpha-2 agonist toxicity in ruminants.
Q6: In the context of the Welsh Government's TB eradication program, what is the standard
interpretation of a "Standard" skin test reactor in a cattle herd?
A. Any increase in skin fold thickness >1mm
B. Any increase in skin fold thickness >2mm
C. Any increase in skin fold thickness >4mm [CORRECT]
D. Presence of clinical signs of TB
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the standard interpretation for a positive reactor in the UK and
Wales is an increase in skin fold thickness of more than 4mm. This matches the official
APHA testing guidelines for bovine tuberculosis surveillance.
Q7: A neonatal calf is presented with failure of passive transfer (FPT). The serum total protein is
4.0 g/dL. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A. Oral administration of colostrum replacer
B. Intravenous administration of hyperimmune plasma or plasma transfusion [CORRECT]
C. Subcutaneous administration of antibiotics
D. Isolation and observation only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a serum total protein of 4.0 g/dL indicates FPT, and
intravenous plasma is required to provide systemic immunity since the calf can no longer
absorb macromolecules via the gut. This matches the standard of care for FPT in neonates
>24 hours old.
Q8: [Mini-Case] A 6-year-old Welsh Cob mare is 320 days pregnant. She presents with acute
onset of colic, sweating, and lying down frequently. On transrectal palpation, you feel a distinct
band of tissue and the uterus is enlarged and tense. The fetal heart rate is 120 bpm (normal is 80-
100 bpm). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Uterine torsion
B. Pre-pubic tendon rupture
C. Premature placental separation (Red Bag) [CORRECT]
D. Dystocia due to fetal malposture
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the palpable band of tissue (chorioallantois), tense uterus, and
elevated fetal heart rate indicate premature separation of the placenta. This matches the
classic clinical signs of "Red Bag" delivery, which is an obstetric emergency.
Q9: Which of the following is a notifiable disease in Wales that requires immediate reporting to
the Animal and Plant Health Agency (APHA)?
A. Bovine Viral Diarrhoea (BVD)
