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NUR 631 Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology Midterm and Final Exam Prep Test Bank 1 PRACTICE EXAM Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf.

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NUR 631 final exam practice: 80 questions covering cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, endocrine, and neurologic pathophysiology. Detailed rationales in italics. For AGACNP and acute care NP students. NUR 631 Final Exam *NUR 631 final exam part 2: questions 81-150 on GI, hepatic, musculoskeletal, infectious disease, endocrine, and pharmacology. Correct answers with in-depth rationales.

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NUR 631 Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology Midterm and
Final Exam Prep Test Bank 1 PRACTICE EXAM Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf.
1. Which statement best describes the cellular function of metabolic absorption?
A. Cells can produce proteins
B. Cells can secrete digestive enzymes
C. Cells can take in and use nutrients
D. Cells can synthesize fats

Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolic absorption refers to the ability of cells to take in and utilize nutrients
from their environment. This is a fundamental function that allows cells to obtain the
materials necessary for energy production, growth, and maintenance. While cells can
perform the other functions listed, absorption specifically involves nutrient intake .

2. Where is most of the cell's genetic information, including RNA and DNA, contained?
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosome
C. Nucleolus
D. Lysosome

Answer: C
Rationale: The nucleolus is the region within the nucleus where ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is
synthesized and where the initial assembly of ribosomes begins. While the nucleus as a
whole contains DNA, the nucleolus specifically is rich in RNA and is the site of ribosome
production .

3. Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) by using oxygen to
remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates?
A. Lysosomes
B. Peroxisomes
C. Ribosomes
D. Endosomes

Answer: B
Rationale: Peroxisomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain oxidative enzymes,

,such as catalase and urate oxidase. They use molecular oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms
from substrates, producing hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) as a byproduct, which is then broken
down by catalase .

4. Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when released during cell
injury?
A. Ribosome
B. Golgi complex
C. Smooth ER
D. Lysosome

Answer: D
Rationale: Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes (hydrolases) that break down cellular
components. When a cell is injured or dies, lysosomal membranes may rupture, releasing
these enzymes and causing autodigestion (autolysis) of the cell .

5. Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing which
process?
A. Atrophy
B. Metaplasia
C. Compensatory hyperplasia
D. Dysplasia

Answer: C
Rationale: The liver has a unique capacity for regeneration. Following partial hepatectomy,
the remaining hepatocytes undergo compensatory hyperplasia—rapid proliferation to
restore liver mass and function. This is not true regeneration but a hyperplastic response .

6. A patient has impaired sodium-potassium pump function. What is the most likely
immediate effect at the cellular level?
A. Increased intracellular potassium
B. Increased intracellular sodium and water accumulation
C. Decreased intracellular calcium
D. Hyperpolarization of the cell membrane

Answer: B
Rationale: The Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump maintains low intracellular sodium by pumping out
three Na⁺ ions in exchange for two K⁺ ions. Pump dysfunction leads to sodium
accumulation inside the cell, and water follows by osmosis, causing cellular swelling .

7. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized?
A. G1 phase

,B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase

Answer: B
Rationale: The S phase (synthesis phase) is when DNA replication occurs, doubling the
genetic content from 2n to 4n in preparation for mitosis. G1 is growth phase, G2 is
preparation for mitosis, and M is mitosis itself .

8. What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action
potential?
A. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell
B. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell
C. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium to enter
D. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium to enter

Answer: B
*Rationale: Depolarization is initiated by the rapid opening of voltage-gated sodium
channels, allowing a massive influx of Na⁺ into the cell. This changes the membrane
potential from the resting negative state (≈ -70 mV) to a positive value (≈ +30 mV) .*

9. What is the process of cellular reproduction?
A. The process often takes months or years to complete
B. The cell must first be programmed to reproduce
C. The process requires the presence of hormones
D. It involves the interaction of male and female cells

Answer: B
Rationale: Cellular reproduction (cell division) is a highly regulated process. Cells must
receive appropriate signals (e.g., growth factors, mitogens) and progress through
checkpoints before division can occur. Not all cells divide continuously; many remain in G0
phase .

10. Which organic compound facilitates transport across cell membranes by acting as
receptors, transport channels, and enzymes?
A. Lipids
B. Proteases
C. Proteins
D. Carbohydrates

Answer: C
Rationale: Membrane proteins serve multiple functions: they act as receptors for signaling

, molecules, form ion channels and transporters for facilitated diffusion/active transport,
and function as enzymes to catalyze reactions at the membrane surface .




Section 2: Genetics & Oncology
11. Which leukemia demonstrates the Philadelphia chromosome?
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
C. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
D. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

Answer: C
Rationale: The Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22) translocation) is present in >95% of CML
cases. This translocation fuses the BCR gene on chromosome 22 with the ABL gene on
chromosome 9, creating a constitutively active tyrosine kinase that drives proliferation .

12. Which leukemia has the best prognosis in children?
A. CML
B. AML
C. ALL
D. CLL

Answer: C
Rationale: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) has a favorable prognosis in children, with
cure rates exceeding 85% with modern chemotherapy protocols. The prognosis is worse in
adults and for other leukemia types .

13. What causes a hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia?
A. Interleukin-2
B. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
C. Interferon-gamma
D. Platelet-derived growth factor

Answer: B
Rationale: Tumor necrosis factor (TNF, also called cachectin) is a proinflammatory
cytokine that induces fever, suppresses appetite, promotes muscle and fat wasting, and
contributes to cancer cachexia—a syndrome of weight loss and metabolic dysregulation .

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