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NSG552 / NSG 552 Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Psychopharmacology Exam 2 - Wilkes | Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Excel in your NSG552 Psychopharmacology Exam 2 with this 2026/2027 complete actual exam for Wilkes University. This resource contains Grade A questions and verified answers covering antidepressant agents, antipsychotic medications, mood stabilizers, anxiolytics and sedative-hypnotics, stimulants, and medication management for psychiatric disorders. Detailed rationales reinforce advanced psychopharmacological principles for graduate-level nursing. Backed by our Pass Guarantee. Download now.

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NSG552
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NSG552

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NSG552 / NSG 552 Actual Exam 2026/2027 |
Psychopharmacology Exam 2 - Wilkes | Grade A
Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Antidepressants & Mood Stabilizers

Q1: What is the primary mechanism of action for Selective Serotonin Reuptake
Inhibitors (SSRIs) like Sertraline and Fluoxetine?
A. Blocking the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.
B. Blocking the reuptake of serotonin specifically in the synaptic cleft.
C. Inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase.
D. Blocking dopamine D2 receptors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B because SSRIs work by selectively blocking the
serotonin transporter (SERT), which prevents the reabsorption of serotonin back into
the presynaptic neuron, thereby increasing its availability in the synaptic cleft.

Q2: A patient is prescribed a Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA) such as Amitriptyline for
neuropathic pain. Which side effect is most critical to assess for during patient
teaching?
A. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibition.
B. Anticholinergic effects and alpha-adrenergic blockade causing orthostatic
hypotension.
C. Serotonin Syndrome.
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because TCAs have significant anticholinergic side
effects (dry mouth, urinary retention) and block alpha-1 receptors, leading to orthostatic
hypotension, which increases the risk of falls, especially in elderly patients.

Q3: A patient prescribed Phenelzine (an MAOI) asks what foods they must avoid to
prevent a hypertensive crisis. Which food item is strictly prohibited?
A. Fresh fruits like apples and bananas.
B. Aged cheeses and cured meats.
C. Green, leafy vegetables.
D. Dairy products like milk and yogurt.
Correct Answer: B

, Rationale: The best answer is B because aged cheeses and cured meats contain high
levels of tyramine, which interacts with MAOIs to cause a dangerous hypertensive crisis
(cheese reaction) due to the inability to metabolize tyramine.

Q4: When educating a patient starting on Lithium, what is the most important instruction
regarding sodium intake?
A. Maintain a consistent daily intake of sodium.
B. Eat a low-sodium diet to prevent hypertension.
C. Consume extra sodium to prevent Lithium toxicity.
D. Avoid sodium entirely during the first week of treatment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This aligns with Lithium pharmacokinetics because fluctuating sodium levels
cause the kidneys to excrete or retain Lithium erratically; consistency is key to
maintaining a stable therapeutic blood level.

Q5: Which laboratory test is most critical to monitor for a patient taking Valproate
(Depakote) due to the risk of hepatotoxicity?
A. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
B. Thyroid Function Tests (TSH)
C. Liver Function Tests (LFTs) and Ammonia levels
D. Renal Function Tests (BUN/Creatinine)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because Valproate carries a risk of hepatotoxicity and
can cause hyperammonemia; monitoring liver enzymes and ammonia is essential to
detect liver damage early.

Q6: A patient with Bipolar Disorder is starting Lamotrigine (Lamictal). What is the most
critical teaching point regarding the dosage titration?
A. You can reach the therapeutic dose within 3 days if symptoms are severe.
B. The dose must be increased slowly to avoid the risk of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
(SJS).
C. It does not matter if you miss a dose; just double it next time.
D. Stop immediately if you develop a mild headache.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B because Lamotrigine carries a risk of severe cutaneous
adverse reactions like Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, which is significantly mitigated by a
very slow, gradual dose escalation over several weeks.

Q7: A patient asks the nurse, "How long will it take for this SSRI to start working?" What
is the most accurate response?
A. You should feel better immediately after the first dose.

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Institución
NSG552
Grado
NSG552

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Subido en
20 de abril de 2026
Número de páginas
15
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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