NURS 120 Introduction to Medical Surgical Nursing - Week 2 Quiz
2026 – WCU
1. A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client who will undergo
elective surgery. Who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the patient’s
informed consent?
A. The surgeon
B. The registered nurse
C. The anesthesiologist
D. The hospital administrator
Answer: A
Rationale: While the nurse may witness the signature, the surgeon is responsible for
explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives to obtain informed consent.
2. A client is in the Post-Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) following surgery. Which
assessment finding is the highest priority for the nurse?
A. Pain level of 6/10
B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
C. Minimal drainage on the surgical dressing
D. Oxygen saturation of 88%
Answer: D
Rationale: Airway and oxygenation are always the first priority. An oxygen saturation of
88% indicates hypoxia and requires immediate intervention.
,3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with the use of
loop diuretics such as Furosemide?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase the excretion of potassium in the urine, frequently
leading to hypokalemia (low potassium levels).
4. A nurse observes a client’s ABG results: pH 7.30, PaCO2 50 mmHg, and HCO3
24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: A
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 is acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg with a normal
bicarbonate (HCO3) indicates the cause is respiratory.
5. Which of the following is an early sign of malignant hyperthermia during
general anesthesia?
A. Hypotension
B. Muscle rigidity and tachycardia
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. Subnormal body temperature
Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is a medical emergency characterized by muscle
rigidity, rapid heart rate (tachycardia), and a rising body temperature.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of the ‘time-out’ procedure in the operating
room?
A. To allow the surgeon to rest
B. To ensure correct patient, site, and procedure
C. To check the patient’s insurance status
D. To allow the scrub nurse to count instruments
Answer: B
Rationale: The Universal Protocol ‘time-out’ is a safety check to verify the identity of the
patient, the surgical site, and the procedure to be performed.
7. A patient with prolonged vomiting is at risk for which acid-base imbalance?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Vomiting causes the loss of gastric hydrochloric acid, which leads to an increase
in blood pH, resulting in metabolic alkalosis.
8. Which of the following IV fluids is considered isotonic?
A. 0.45% Normal Saline (1/2 NS)
B. 3% Sodium Chloride
C. Dextrose 5% in 0.9% Normal Saline
D. 0.9% Normal Saline (NS)
Answer: D
Rationale: 0.9% Sodium Chloride and Lactated Ringer’s are common isotonic solutions
used for volume expansion.
2026 – WCU
1. A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client who will undergo
elective surgery. Who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the patient’s
informed consent?
A. The surgeon
B. The registered nurse
C. The anesthesiologist
D. The hospital administrator
Answer: A
Rationale: While the nurse may witness the signature, the surgeon is responsible for
explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives to obtain informed consent.
2. A client is in the Post-Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) following surgery. Which
assessment finding is the highest priority for the nurse?
A. Pain level of 6/10
B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
C. Minimal drainage on the surgical dressing
D. Oxygen saturation of 88%
Answer: D
Rationale: Airway and oxygenation are always the first priority. An oxygen saturation of
88% indicates hypoxia and requires immediate intervention.
,3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with the use of
loop diuretics such as Furosemide?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase the excretion of potassium in the urine, frequently
leading to hypokalemia (low potassium levels).
4. A nurse observes a client’s ABG results: pH 7.30, PaCO2 50 mmHg, and HCO3
24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: A
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 is acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg with a normal
bicarbonate (HCO3) indicates the cause is respiratory.
5. Which of the following is an early sign of malignant hyperthermia during
general anesthesia?
A. Hypotension
B. Muscle rigidity and tachycardia
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. Subnormal body temperature
Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is a medical emergency characterized by muscle
rigidity, rapid heart rate (tachycardia), and a rising body temperature.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of the ‘time-out’ procedure in the operating
room?
A. To allow the surgeon to rest
B. To ensure correct patient, site, and procedure
C. To check the patient’s insurance status
D. To allow the scrub nurse to count instruments
Answer: B
Rationale: The Universal Protocol ‘time-out’ is a safety check to verify the identity of the
patient, the surgical site, and the procedure to be performed.
7. A patient with prolonged vomiting is at risk for which acid-base imbalance?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Vomiting causes the loss of gastric hydrochloric acid, which leads to an increase
in blood pH, resulting in metabolic alkalosis.
8. Which of the following IV fluids is considered isotonic?
A. 0.45% Normal Saline (1/2 NS)
B. 3% Sodium Chloride
C. Dextrose 5% in 0.9% Normal Saline
D. 0.9% Normal Saline (NS)
Answer: D
Rationale: 0.9% Sodium Chloride and Lactated Ringer’s are common isotonic solutions
used for volume expansion.
