NR 602 Midterm Exam: Primary Care of the Childbearing Family 2026
Chamberlain College
1. At what age should a child be able to sit without support?
A. 4 months
B. 9 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C
Rationale: Most infants can sit without support by 6 months of age; by 9 months, they are
typically crawling or pulling to stand.
2. A 26-year-old pregnant woman is screened for Gestational Diabetes (GDM).
At what gestational age is this screening typically performed?
A. 12-14 weeks
B. 18-20 weeks
C. 32-34 weeks
D. 24-28 weeks
Answer: D
Rationale: Universal screening for gestational diabetes occurs between 24 and 28 weeks of
gestation using a glucose challenge test.
,3. Which of the following is a core diagnostic criterion for Polycystic Ovary
Syndrome (PCOS) according to the Rotterdam criteria?
A. Hypotension
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hyperandrogenism
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: C
Rationale: The Rotterdam criteria require two of three: clinical or biochemical
hyperandrogenism, ovulatory dysfunction, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.
4. The first dose of the Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is typically
administered at what age?
A. 12-15 months
B. 6 months
C. 2 years
D. 4-6 years
Answer: A
Rationale: The MMR vaccine is first given between 12 and 15 months, with a second dose
usually between ages 4 and 6.
5. Which physical finding is pathognomonic for Bacterial Vaginosis (BV) during a
wet mount microscopy?
A. Hyphae and spores
B. Clue cells
C. Trichomonads
D. Increased White Blood Cells
Answer: B
Rationale: Clue cells (epithelial cells covered in bacteria) are a classic finding in Bacterial
Vaginosis and are part of the Amsel criteria.
, 6. A woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden, painless vaginal
bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placental Abruption
B. Cervicitis
C. Preterm Labor
D. Placenta Previa
Answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
third trimester. Abruption is typically painful.
7. In Tanner Staging, the appearance of breast budding (thelarche) characterizes
which stage?
A. Stage 2
B. Stage 1
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: A
Rationale: Tanner Stage 2 represents the onset of puberty, marked by breast budding in
girls and testicular enlargement in boys.
8. What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin D for infants to prevent
rickets?
A. 200 IU
B. 400 IU
C. 800 IU
D. 1000 IU
Answer: B
Rationale: The AAP recommends that all infants (breastfed or formula-fed) receive 400 IU
of Vitamin D daily starting shortly after birth.
Chamberlain College
1. At what age should a child be able to sit without support?
A. 4 months
B. 9 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C
Rationale: Most infants can sit without support by 6 months of age; by 9 months, they are
typically crawling or pulling to stand.
2. A 26-year-old pregnant woman is screened for Gestational Diabetes (GDM).
At what gestational age is this screening typically performed?
A. 12-14 weeks
B. 18-20 weeks
C. 32-34 weeks
D. 24-28 weeks
Answer: D
Rationale: Universal screening for gestational diabetes occurs between 24 and 28 weeks of
gestation using a glucose challenge test.
,3. Which of the following is a core diagnostic criterion for Polycystic Ovary
Syndrome (PCOS) according to the Rotterdam criteria?
A. Hypotension
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hyperandrogenism
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: C
Rationale: The Rotterdam criteria require two of three: clinical or biochemical
hyperandrogenism, ovulatory dysfunction, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.
4. The first dose of the Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is typically
administered at what age?
A. 12-15 months
B. 6 months
C. 2 years
D. 4-6 years
Answer: A
Rationale: The MMR vaccine is first given between 12 and 15 months, with a second dose
usually between ages 4 and 6.
5. Which physical finding is pathognomonic for Bacterial Vaginosis (BV) during a
wet mount microscopy?
A. Hyphae and spores
B. Clue cells
C. Trichomonads
D. Increased White Blood Cells
Answer: B
Rationale: Clue cells (epithelial cells covered in bacteria) are a classic finding in Bacterial
Vaginosis and are part of the Amsel criteria.
, 6. A woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden, painless vaginal
bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placental Abruption
B. Cervicitis
C. Preterm Labor
D. Placenta Previa
Answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
third trimester. Abruption is typically painful.
7. In Tanner Staging, the appearance of breast budding (thelarche) characterizes
which stage?
A. Stage 2
B. Stage 1
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: A
Rationale: Tanner Stage 2 represents the onset of puberty, marked by breast budding in
girls and testicular enlargement in boys.
8. What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin D for infants to prevent
rickets?
A. 200 IU
B. 400 IU
C. 800 IU
D. 1000 IU
Answer: B
Rationale: The AAP recommends that all infants (breastfed or formula-fed) receive 400 IU
of Vitamin D daily starting shortly after birth.
