NR 602 Final Exam: Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing
Family 2026 Chamberlain College
1. A 2-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of ‘barking’ cough and
inspiratory stridor. What is the most likely viral pathogen?
A. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
B. Influenza A
C. Adenovirus
D. Parainfluenza virus
Answer: D
Rationale: Parainfluenza virus is the most common cause of croup
(laryngotracheobronchitis), characterized by the classic barking cough.
2. Which of the following is considered the first-line antibiotic for
uncomplicated Acute Otitis Media in a child with no drug allergies?
A. Azithromycin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Amoxicillin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Answer: C
Rationale: High-dose amoxicillin (80-90 mg/kg/day) is the gold standard first-line
treatment for AOM.
,3. A 15-year-old female presents for a sports physical. You note sparse, long,
pigmented pubic hair along the labia and breast bud development. Which
Tanner Stage is she?
A. Stage 2
B. Stage 1
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: A
Rationale: Tanner Stage 2 marks the beginning of puberty with breast budding (thelarche)
and initial pubic hair growth.
4. What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia in the pediatric
population?
A. Lead poisoning
B. Iron deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Thalassemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Iron deficiency is the most frequent cause of microcytic anemia in children,
often due to excessive cow’s milk intake or poor diet.
5. Which physical exam maneuver is used to reduce a dislocated hip in a
newborn with suspected Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)?
A. Barlow maneuver
B. Lachman test
C. Ortolani maneuver
D. McMurray test
Answer: C
, Rationale: The Ortolani maneuver involves abducting the hips to ‘reduce’ or click the
femoral head back into the acetabulum.
6. A 4-week-old infant presents with projectile, non-bilious vomiting and an
olive-shaped mass in the epigastrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastroesophageal Reflux
B. Intussusception
C. Hirschsprung disease
D. Pyloric Stenosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis typically presents between 3-6 weeks of life with projectile
vomiting and a palpable olive-shaped mass.
7. According to the CDC, what is the recommended first-line treatment for an
uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in a non-pregnant adolescent?
A. Azithromycin 1g orally (single dose)
B. Metronidazole 500mg twice daily
C. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM
D. Doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 7 days
Answer: D
Rationale: Current CDC guidelines now prefer Doxycycline for 7 days over single-dose
Azithromycin for Chlamydia.
8. At what age should a normally developing infant be able to sit without
support?
A. 6 months
B. 4 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
Answer: A
Family 2026 Chamberlain College
1. A 2-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of ‘barking’ cough and
inspiratory stridor. What is the most likely viral pathogen?
A. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
B. Influenza A
C. Adenovirus
D. Parainfluenza virus
Answer: D
Rationale: Parainfluenza virus is the most common cause of croup
(laryngotracheobronchitis), characterized by the classic barking cough.
2. Which of the following is considered the first-line antibiotic for
uncomplicated Acute Otitis Media in a child with no drug allergies?
A. Azithromycin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Amoxicillin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Answer: C
Rationale: High-dose amoxicillin (80-90 mg/kg/day) is the gold standard first-line
treatment for AOM.
,3. A 15-year-old female presents for a sports physical. You note sparse, long,
pigmented pubic hair along the labia and breast bud development. Which
Tanner Stage is she?
A. Stage 2
B. Stage 1
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: A
Rationale: Tanner Stage 2 marks the beginning of puberty with breast budding (thelarche)
and initial pubic hair growth.
4. What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia in the pediatric
population?
A. Lead poisoning
B. Iron deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Thalassemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Iron deficiency is the most frequent cause of microcytic anemia in children,
often due to excessive cow’s milk intake or poor diet.
5. Which physical exam maneuver is used to reduce a dislocated hip in a
newborn with suspected Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)?
A. Barlow maneuver
B. Lachman test
C. Ortolani maneuver
D. McMurray test
Answer: C
, Rationale: The Ortolani maneuver involves abducting the hips to ‘reduce’ or click the
femoral head back into the acetabulum.
6. A 4-week-old infant presents with projectile, non-bilious vomiting and an
olive-shaped mass in the epigastrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastroesophageal Reflux
B. Intussusception
C. Hirschsprung disease
D. Pyloric Stenosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis typically presents between 3-6 weeks of life with projectile
vomiting and a palpable olive-shaped mass.
7. According to the CDC, what is the recommended first-line treatment for an
uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in a non-pregnant adolescent?
A. Azithromycin 1g orally (single dose)
B. Metronidazole 500mg twice daily
C. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM
D. Doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 7 days
Answer: D
Rationale: Current CDC guidelines now prefer Doxycycline for 7 days over single-dose
Azithromycin for Chlamydia.
8. At what age should a normally developing infant be able to sit without
support?
A. 6 months
B. 4 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
Answer: A
