and Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf
1. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of Broca’s
aphasia?
A. Fluent speech with paraphasias
B. Nonfluent, effortful speech with relatively preserved
comprehension
C. Severe comprehension deficits with fluent speech
D. Impaired repetition but intact naming
Rationale: Broca’s aphasia is characterized by nonfluent, effortful
speech while comprehension is relatively preserved. Patients often
struggle with grammar and word retrieval.
2. The most common cause of acquired apraxia of speech in adults
is:
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Stroke (especially left hemisphere)
C. Traumatic brain injury
D. Multiple sclerosis
,Rationale: Adult apraxia of speech typically results from a lesion in the
left hemisphere, often due to a stroke affecting the motor planning
areas.
3. Which type of hearing loss results from damage to the inner ear
or auditory nerve?
A. Conductive
B. Mixed
C. Sensorineural
D. Central
Rationale: Sensorineural hearing loss arises from damage to the
cochlea or auditory nerve, affecting the transduction of sound and
signal transmission to the brain.
4. A child consistently substitutes /w/ for /r/, saying “wabbit” instead
of “rabbit.” This is an example of:
A. Stopping
B. Gliding
C. Fronting
D. Cluster reduction
Rationale: Gliding occurs when a liquid sound like /r/ or /l/ is replaced
by a glide, such as /w/ or /j/, which is common in typical speech
development.
, 5. The primary role of the superior temporal gyrus in language
processing is:
A. Motor planning of speech
B. Auditory processing and comprehension
C. Syntax formulation
D. Articulation
Rationale: The superior temporal gyrus, especially in the left
hemisphere (including Wernicke’s area), is critical for auditory
processing and comprehension of language.
6. Which standardized assessment is commonly used to evaluate
expressive and receptive language in children?
A. Beery VMI
B. Preschool Language Scale, Fifth Edition (PLS-5)
C. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
D. Goldman-Fristoe Test of Articulation
Rationale: The PLS-5 assesses both expressive and receptive language
skills in children from birth through age 7, making it widely used in
pediatric SLP evaluations.
7. Which dysfluency is most characteristic of stuttering?
A. Final consonant deletion
B. Part-word repetitions and prolongations
, C. Velar fronting
D. Omissions of grammatical morphemes
Rationale: Stuttering typically involves repetitions of sounds or
syllables, prolongations, and blocks, rather than structural articulation
errors.
8. A patient presents with hypernasal speech and weak pressure
consonants. Which structure is most likely impaired?
A. Vocal folds
B. Tongue tip
C. Velopharyngeal mechanism
D. Lips
Rationale: Hypernasality and reduced intraoral pressure suggest
velopharyngeal dysfunction, which prevents adequate closure
between the nasal and oral cavities during speech.
9. The critical period hypothesis in language development suggests
that:
A. Language can be acquired equally well at any age
B. There is a biologically determined window for optimal
language acquisition
C. Vocabulary is fixed after early childhood
D. Syntax is innate and unaffected by exposure