Chamberlain NR 565 Midterm Exam 2026/2027 Advanced
Pharmacology Fundamentals Actual Exam Questions Verified Answers
Study Guide Grade A
1. What are CYP450 inhibitors? (Select all that apply.)
A. Valproate, isoniazid, sulfonamides
B. Amiodarone, chloramphenicol, ketoconazole
C. Grapefruit juice, quinidine
D. Carbamazepine, rifampin, alcohol
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: CYP450 inhibitors include valproate, isoniazid, sulfonamides, amiodarone,
chloramphenicol, ketoconazole, grapefruit juice, and quinidine.
2. What are CYP450 inducers? (Select all that apply.)
A. Carbamazepine, rifampin, alcohol
B. Phenytoin, griseofulvin, phenobarbital
C. Sulfonylureas
,2|Page
D. Valproate, isoniazid, ketoconazole
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: CYP450 inducers include carbamazepine, rifampin, alcohol, phenytoin,
griseofulvin, phenobarbital, and sulfonylureas.
3. What medications are Schedule II controlled substances? (Select all that apply.)
A. Methadone
B. Fentanyl
C. Oxycodone
D. Codeine (less than 90 mg)
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: Schedule II drugs include methadone, fentanyl, and oxycodone. Codeine with
less than 90 mg per dosage unit is Schedule III.
4. What medications are Schedule III controlled substances?
A. Methadone, fentanyl, oxycodone
B. Steroids, codeine less than 90 mg per dosage unit
C. Ativan, tramadol
D. Marijuana, heroin
,3|Page
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule III drugs include anabolic steroids and codeine-containing products
with less than 90 mg of codeine per dosage unit.
5. What is the abuse potential for Schedule III drugs?
A. High
B. Moderate to low
C. Very high
D. No abuse potential
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule III drugs have a moderate to low potential for physical and
psychological dependence.
6. What medications are Schedule IV controlled substances? (Select all that apply.)
A. Ativan (lorazepam)
B. Tramadol
C. Methadone
D. Oxycodone
Correct Answer: A, B
, 4|Page
Rationale: Schedule IV drugs include Ativan (lorazepam) and tramadol. Methadone and
oxycodone are Schedule II.
7. What event can occur if Plavix (clopidogrel) is not converted to its active form?
A. Increased risk for bleeding
B. Increased risk for stroke
C. Increased risk for hepatotoxicity
D. Increased risk for nephrotoxicity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is a prodrug that requires CYP2C19 conversion to its active form.
Poor metabolizers have increased risk of stroke and cardiovascular events.
8. What is the black box warning for opioids?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Respiratory depression
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Cardiotoxicity
Correct Answer: B