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Galen NUR 210 Exam 3 2026 | Principles of Pharmacology | Complete Study Guide with Q&A | Diuretics, Antihypertensives, Insulin, TB Meds & Respiratory Agents | Verified Answers with Rationales | Grade A+

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Subido en
26-03-2026
Escrito en
2025/2026

INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD—This comprehensive study guide is specifically designed for Galen College of Nursing students preparing for NUR 210 Principles of Pharmacology Exam 3 for the 2026 academic year. Based on verified exam materials from top-selling student resources, this resource contains expertly verified practice questions and 100% correct answers with detailed rationales to help you master core pharmacology concepts and achieve a top score (Grade A+). This comprehensive guide covers all major topics tested on NUR 210 Exam 3 : Antihypertensive Drug Classifications : Beta-adrenergic blockers (-olol: metoprolol) block adrenergic effects, lowering BP and heart rate; caution with diabetes (mask hypoglycemia), asthma (bronchospasm), and liver/kidney dysfunction . Alpha-adrenergic blockers (-sin: prazosin) cause vasodilation; monitor for first-dose orthostatic hypotension . Calcium channel blockers (-pine: nifedipine) block calcium movement, promoting vasodilation and decreased heart rate; side effects include flushing, headache, ankle edema . ACE inhibitors (-pril: lisinopril) inhibit angiotensin II production, causing vasodilation and potassium retention; side effects include persistent dry cough and hyperkalemia; avoid potassium supplements and salt substitutes . ARBs (-sartan: valsartan) block angiotensin II receptors; do NOT cause the ACE inhibitor cough . Diuretics : Thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide) cause potassium wasting, hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia; can increase digoxin toxicity if hypokalemic . Loop diuretics (furosemide/Lasix) cause significant potassium loss; monitor for ototoxicity (hearing loss) when IV pushed too fast; contraindicated in sulfa allergy . Potassium-sparing diuretics (spironolactone) increase potassium levels; avoid high-potassium foods and salt substitutes . Osmotic diuretics (mannitol) decrease intracranial pressure; monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalances . Antidiabetic & Thyroid Medications : Insulin types—regular (clear) and NPH (cloudy); mixing sequence: clear to cloudy; administer air into both vials first, draw regular then NPH . Insulin glargine (Lantus) has no peak, once-daily dosing . Metformin (Glucophage) causes GI upset; hold for contrast dye procedures due to renal risk . Levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism—administer before breakfast on empty stomach; never abruptly stop; signs of overdose: palpitations, anxiety, heat intolerance, weight loss . Propylthiouracil for hyperthyroidism—administer with meals . Antitubercular Medications : Isoniazid (INH) requires pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) supplementation to prevent peripheral neuropathy (numbness, tingling) . Rifampin causes red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears—this is harmless but should be taught to the patient . Multidrug therapy is necessary to prevent resistant bacteria; treatment typically lasts 6-12 months, not 4 weeks . Respiratory Agents : First-generation antihistamines (diphenhydramine) cause significant sedation; advise against driving . Second-generation antihistamines (loratadine) have fewer sedative effects . Beta-agonist bronchodilators (albuterol) may cause tachycardia; report this side effect . Metered-dose inhaler (MDI) teaching: hold breath for 10 seconds after inhalation; for multiple inhalers, administer bronchodilator first (albuterol), wait 5 minutes, then administer corticosteroid (beclomethasone) . Guaifenesin (expectorant) requires increased fluid intake to decrease viscosity of secretions . Critical Lab Values & Monitoring : Potassium (normal 3.5-5.0 mEq/L)—hypokalemia with furosemide/HCTZ requires immediate reporting before next dose . Sodium (normal 135-145 mEq/L). Calcium (normal 9-10.5 mg/dL). Glucose monitoring for diabetics on beta blockers (mask hypoglycemia symptoms). A1C for diabetes management. Liver function tests (AST/ALT) for INH and rifampin monitoring . Patient Teaching & Safety : For orthostatic hypotension: rise slowly from sitting/lying position; take prazosin at bedtime to minimize fall risk . For ACE inhibitors/ARBs: avoid salt substitutes and potassium supplements . For loop/thiazide diuretics: monitor for muscle weakness, cramps (hypokalemia); eat potassium-rich foods unless on potassium-sparing diuretics . For beta blockers: never stop abruptly (rebound hypertension, tachycardia); diabetic patients must monitor blood glucose closely . Sample Questions Include : "A patient is started on furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. Which finding is a priority to report before administering the first dose?" → Potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L (hypokalemia increases risk of cardiac dysrhythmias) "What statement by a patient taking spironolactone indicates a need for further teaching?" → "I can eat as many bananas as I want because they are healthy" (potassium-sparing diuretic + high-potassium foods → hyperkalemia risk) "What should the nurse teach a patient taking isoniazid (INH)?" → Vitamin B6 will prevent numbness and tingling (prevents peripheral neuropathy) "A patient taking rifampin has red-orange urine. What is the nurse's best action?" → Document the findings and teach the patient (harmless side effect) "What is the most important instruction for a patient switching from diphenhydramine to loratadine?" → Loratadine has fewer sedative effects "What adverse effect should the nurse report in a patient receiving furosemide IV push?" → Hearing loss (ototoxicity from rapid administration) All questions include complete rationales based on current evidence-based practice, pharmacology standards, and Galen College curriculum requirements. DOCUMENT ACCESS: This study guide is available as an instant digital download (PDF) immediately upon purchase. Fully text-searchable, printable, and accessible anytime through your user account. 100% satisfaction guarantee. Trusted by thousands of Galen nursing students for NUR 210 exam preparation and mastering pharmacology competencies.

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Galen NUR 210 Exam 3 2026/2027 Principles of

Pharmacology Actual Exam Questions Verified Answers

Study Guide Grade A


1. What is the upper respiratory system composed of?

A. Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

B. Nose down to the trachea, also referred to as "dead space"

C. Lungs and diaphragm

D. Pharynx and larynx only

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The upper respiratory system extends from the nose down to the trachea

and is referred to as "dead space" because no gas exchange occurs there.



2. What does "dead space" mean in respiratory physiology?

A. Areas where oxygen is stored

B. No gas exchange; no oxygen or CO₂ exchange occurs

C. Spaces where air is trapped

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D. Areas of the lung that do not inflate

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dead space refers to areas of the respiratory tract where no gas exchange

occurs, including the upper airways.



3. Why must nurses account for dead space when ventilating a patient?

A. Dead space accounts for 500 mL; adequate ventilation must overcome dead space for

proper gas exchange

B. Dead space increases oxygen demand

C. Dead space decreases tidal volume

D. Dead space causes carbon dioxide retention

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Dead space accounts for approximately 500 mL; when ventilating a patient,

this volume must be overcome to ensure adequate gas exchange.



4. What does the lower respiratory system consist of?

A. Nose, pharynx, and larynx

B. Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

C. Trachea and bronchi

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D. Lungs only

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The lower respiratory system consists of the bronchi, bronchioles, and

alveoli, where gas exchange occurs.



5. Where does gas exchange occur in the respiratory system?

A. Bronchi

B. Bronchioles

C. Alveoli

D. Trachea

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Gas exchange occurs in the alveoli, where oxygen moves into the blood and

carbon dioxide moves out.



6. What is ventilation?

A. The movement of oxygen from alveoli to blood

B. The inflow and outflow of air (breathing in and out)

C. The transport of oxygen in the blood

D. The exchange of gases at the cellular level

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Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Ventilation includes the inflow and outflow of air—the mechanical process of

breathing.



7. What is flail chest?

A. Fracture of a single rib

B. Two or more breaks in the ribs causing paradoxical chest wall movement (chest sinks

on inspiration, expands on expiration)

C. Inflammation of the rib cartilage

D. Compression of the chest wall

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Flail chest occurs when two or more ribs are fractured in multiple places,

causing paradoxical movement where the chest wall sinks during inspiration and

expands during expiration.



8. What is compliance in respiratory physiology?

A. The ability of the bronchioles to expand and contract; relates to alveoli

B. The rate of breathing

C. The volume of air moved per breath

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Subido en
26 de marzo de 2026
Número de páginas
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Escrito en
2025/2026
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