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Regis NU 665 Primary Care of the Adult Exam 2 2026/2027 | Complete Study Guide with 200+ Q&A | Pediatric Orthopedics, Infectious Disease, Neurology & Mental Health | Verified Answers with Rationales | Grade A+ | NGN-Aligned

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Escrito en
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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD—This comprehensive study guide is specifically designed for Regis College graduate nursing students (FNP, AGPCNP) preparing for NU 665 Primary Care of the Adult Exam 2 for the 2026/2027 academic year. Based on verified exam materials from top-selling student resources, this resource contains expertly verified practice questions and 100% correct answers with detailed rationales to help you master core primary care concepts and achieve a top score (Grade A+) . This comprehensive guide covers all major topics tested on NU 665 Exam 2 : Musculoskeletal Disorders : Salter-Harris fracture classification (Type II with metaphyseal fragment) , developmental dysplasia of the hip (Barlow and Ortolani maneuvers), nursemaid's elbow reduction technique (supination and flexion) , Osgood-Schlatter disease (tibial tubercle tenderness with knee extension), slipped capital femoral epiphysis (non-weight bearing priority) , clubfoot (talipes equinovarus), Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, torticollis, and spastic cerebral palsy (increased deep tendon reflexes, sustained clonus) . Pediatric & Adolescent Mental Health : Anxiety disorders, depression, Tourette syndrome (symptoms become more unpredictable during adolescence) , Rett syndrome (regression of developmental milestones) , play therapy for toddlers and preschoolers , and addressing psychosocial issues such as rejection and family transitions . Infectious Disease & Vaccinations : Community-acquired MRSA treatment (clindamycin 30-40 mg/kg/day PO, TMP/SMX 5-10 mg/kg/day) , Lyme disease management (endemic area prophylaxis, teach signs/symptoms) , PCV13 for bronchopulmonary dysplasia patients , meningococcal and pneumococcal vaccines for high-risk children (cochlear implants, sickle cell, asplenia, immunodeficiency), PPSV23 for high-risk populations , and MMR administration within 72 hours of measles exposure . Neurological Disorders & Diagnostics : Meningitis signs (Kernig sign: extending leg at knee with infant supine; Brudzinski sign; rash, stiff neck, photophobia, fever) , septicemia symptoms (cold hands/feet, pale/mottled skin, rapid breathing) , febrile seizure management (handwashing, avoid sick contacts, no sharing toys/utensils) , single non-febrile seizure (EEG indicated) , and ultrasonography for infant brain tissue evaluation . Medication Dosages & Guidelines : Clindamycin (30-40 mg/kg/day PO divided q8h x10 days) , Bactrim (5-10 mg/kg/day TMP PO divided bid 2-3x/wk) , acetaminophen (10-15 mg/kg q4-6h) , ibuprofen (10 mg/kg q6-8h, earliest age 6 months) , and factors influencing medication adherence (taste, length of treatment, cost, timing, belief systems, family/social factors) . Antibiotic Prescribing Considerations : The antimicrobial spectrum, degree of antibiotic exposure, efficacy, tolerance, toxicity, side effects, and cost are all factors to consider when prescribing an antibiotic . Macrolides are bacteriostatic (not bactericidal) . Lab Value Interpretation : C-reactive protein (CRP) blood test measures the level of inflammation in the body; CRP 10 mg/dL is most concerning in an infant with fever and suspected bacterial infection . Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is helpful in diagnosis and follow-up of conditions like Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease . Sample Questions Include : "What is the correct reduction technique for nursemaid's elbow?" → Supination and flexion "A 14-year-old overweight boy develops a unilateral limp with external rotation of the hip when flexed. What is most important initially?" → Place the child on crutches or in a wheelchair to prevent weight-bearing "Which lab value is most concerning in an infant with fever and suspected bacterial infection?" → C-reactive protein 10 mg/dL "What is the earliest age to give ibuprofen?" → 6 months "What is the recommended treatment for an 18-month-old with Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD) to prevent pneumococcal disease?" → PCV 13 "What diagnostic test is indicated for a child who has had a single non-febrile seizure with a normal neurologic exam?" → EEG "What characterizes spastic cerebral palsy?" → Increased deep tendon reflexes and sustained clonus All questions include complete rationales based on current evidence-based practice, primary care guidelines, and Regis College curriculum requirements . DOCUMENT ACCESS: This study guide is available as an instant digital download (PDF) immediately upon purchase. Fully text-searchable, printable, and accessible anytime through your user account. 100% satisfaction guarantee. Trusted by thousands of graduate nursing students for Regis NU 665 exam preparation and mastering primary care competencies .

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Regis NU 665 Exam 2: Primary Care of the Adult

2026/2027 – Verified Questions & Answers with

Detailed Rationales | Grade A Prep Guide



1. A 10-month-old child has been diagnosed with gastroenteritis. He attends a child-care

facility. What is the most likely cause of his illness?

A. C. difficile

B. Rotavirus

C. Norovirus

D. Cryptosporidium

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children attending

child-care facilities, causing acute onset of vomiting and diarrhea.



2. In a healthy 8-month-old with diarrhea but no dehydration, what would be the most

appropriate advice to give parents?

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A. Encourage full-strength formula for 12 hours

B. Give oral rehydration solution (ORS) for 12 hours

C. Give only fluids until stools return to normal

D. Give bananas and cereal, as tolerated

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Starvation depresses digestive function and prolongs diarrhea. ORS is only

given if dehydration is present. Bananas and cereal (the BRAT diet) are easily tolerated

and provide nutrition without worsening diarrhea.



3. When evaluating a child with abdominal pain, what symptom would lead to a likely

organic etiology?

A. Night waking

B. Pallor

C. Suprapubic pain

D. Sweating

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nighttime awakening with abdominal pain usually does not occur with

functional disorders and suggests an organic etiology such as peptic ulcer disease or

gastroesophageal reflux.

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4. Vomiting in infancy has a long list of differential diagnoses. Which accompanying

symptom would most likely point to pyloric stenosis?

A. Diarrhea

B. Appropriate growth

C. Acts hungry after vomiting

D. Sausage-shaped mass in abdomen

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pyloric stenosis, projectile vomiting usually starts between 1 and 2 months

of age, and the infant will be very hungry after vomiting. Other symptoms include

constipation, fussiness, and weight loss.



5. Mrs. Doyle is upset. Two-month-old John's frequent vomiting has her convinced that

"something is seriously wrong." Which of the following is most suggestive of GER?

A. He's gained 5 ounces this month

B. He has a slight wheeze today

C. He eats hungrily after vomiting

D. He drinks 7-8 ounces every 3-4 hours

Correct Answer: D

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Rationale: John is being overfed, which predisposes infants to GER. A more appropriate

intake for a 2-month-old is 4-5 ounces every 3-4 hours.



6. Which of the following findings could be expected to occur in a baby with

intussusception?

A. Inconsolable screaming

B. Olive-shaped mass

C. Left-to-right peristaltic waves

D. Weight loss

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception causes acute, severe, colicky abdominal pain, leading to

inconsolable screaming. Olive-shaped mass and left-to-right peristaltic waves are

associated with pyloric stenosis.



7. Which of the following may occur with suspected appendicitis?

A. Pain is not relieved with ambulation

B. Young children appear very ill in the early phase

C. Fever is 102-103°F

D. Leukopenia with left shift is present

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