OB Test 1 ATI Textbook and Practice Test Questions. EXAM 2026 AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS |ACCURATE ANSWERS| VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS |GRADED A |NEW VERSION

A client reports contractions for 2 hours that increase with activity and do not decrease with rest or hydration, along with slight vaginal bleeding. What is the client experiencing? A. Braxton Hicks contractions B. Rupture of membranes C. Fetal descent D. True contractions Correct Answer: D. True contractions Rationale: True labor contractions increase with activity, persist despite rest, and may be accompanied by bloody show. A nurse assesses a client with contractions every 8 minutes lasting 30–40 seconds, cervix 2 cm dilated and 50% effaced. Which stage and phase of labor is this? A. First stage, latent phase B. First stage, active phase C. First stage, transition phase D. Second stage Correct Answer: A. First stage, latent phase Rationale: Latent phase involves dilation from 0–3 cm with mild, shorter contractions. A client at 40 weeks reports a sudden gush of fluid. What is the nurse’s priority action? A. Examine fluid for meconium B. Check fetal heart rate C. Dry the client D. Apply a tocotransducer Correct Answer: B. Check fetal heart rate Rationale: Priority is to assess for cord prolapse and fetal distress after membrane rupture. A client reports leaking fluid for 2 days. What is the priority risk? A. Cord prolapse B. Infection C. Postpartum hemorrhage D. Hydramnios Correct Answer: B. Infection Rationale: Prolonged rupture (24 hrs) increases infection risk. A client in labor is irritable, vomiting, and feels rectal pressure. Which phase is this? A. Second stage B. Fourth stage C. Transition phase D. Latent phase Correct Answer: C. Transition phase Rationale: Transition phase includes intense contractions, irritability, nausea, and urge to push. A client in active labor (3 cm, 80% effaced) requests pain relief. What should the nurse do? A. Insert urinary catheter B. Administer opioid analgesic C. Apply cold therapy D. Provide ice chips Correct Answer: B. Administer opioid analgesic Rationale: Opioids are appropriate for pain relief in early labor. A client in labor has back pain due to occiput posterior position. What intervention should the nurse use? A. Abdominal effleurage B. Sacral counterpressure C. Showering D. Massage Correct Answer: B. Sacral counterpressure Rationale: Counterpressure relieves back pain from posterior fetal position. A client receives IV fluids before an epidural. Why? A. Prevent infection B. Reduce pain C. Prevent hypotension D. Increase contractions Correct Answer: C. Prevent hypotension Rationale: Epidurals can cause vasodilation and hypotension. A client in second stage is receiving lidocaine for episiotomy. What block is used? A. Pudendal B. Epidural C. Spinal D. Paracervical Correct Answer: A. Pudendal Rationale: Pudendal block numbs the perineum for delivery procedures. A client using breathing techniques reports tingling in fingers. What should the nurse do? A. Encourage faster breathing B. Apply oxygen mask C. Slow breathing D. Give fluids Correct Answer: B. Apply oxygen mask Rationale: Hyperventilation causes respiratory alkalosis; rebreathing or oxygen helps correct it. FHR baseline is 115–125 with moderate variability and occasional increases. What does this indicate? (Select all that apply) A. Moderate variability B. FHR accelerations C. FHR decelerations D. Normal baseline FHR E. Fetal tachycardia Correct Answers: A, B, D Rationale: Findings indicate normal fetal status with good oxygenation. Which statements describe benefits of fetal monitoring? (Select all that apply) A. Noninvasive procedure B. Detects abnormal FHR early C. Determines amniotic fluid amount D. Accurate with movement E. Measures contraction intensity Correct Answers: B, D, E Rationale: Monitoring identifies fetal distress and contraction patterns but does not measure fluid. When does the fetus receive the most oxygen? A. Peak of contraction B. Moderate variability C. FHR acceleration D. Relaxation between contractions Correct Answer: D. Relaxation between contractions Rationale: Placental perfusion is best when uterus is relaxed. Late decelerations are observed. What is the first action? A. Left lateral position B. Apply scalp electrode C. Insert IV D. Vaginal exam Correct Answer: A Rationale: Improves uteroplacental perfusion. Leopold maneuvers: how to identify fetal lie? A. Palpate fundus B. Auscultate heart tones C. Check cervix D. Measure contractions Correct Answer: A Rationale: Fundal palpation identifies fetal part and lie. How to identify crowning? A. Increased contractions B. Vaginal bulging with visible head C. Membrane rupture D. Increased bleeding Correct Answer: B Rationale: Crowning occurs when the fetal head is visible. Client feels urge to defecate in transition. What should nurse do? A. Assist to bathroom B. Prepare for delivery C. Treat impaction D. Encourage breathing Correct Answer: B Rationale: Indicates imminent delivery. Signs of placental separation? (Select all that apply) A. Lengthening cord B. Gush of fluid C. Soft uterus D. Dark blood E. Firm fundus Correct Answers: A, D, E Rationale: Classic signs include cord lengthening, bleeding, and firm uterus. Client with vaginal bleeding—what should nurse do? A. Check cord B. Test fluid C. Monitor station D. Defer vaginal exams Correct Answer: D Rationale: Prevents complications if placenta previa is present. Why encourage voiding every 2 hours? A. Prevent infection B. Reduce pain C. Prevent bladder distention D. Improve contractions Correct Answer: C Rationale: Full bladder obstructs fetal descent. Indications for amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply) A. Oligohydramnios B. Hydramnios C. Cord compression D. Hydration E. Immaturity Correct Answers: A, C Rationale: Used to relieve cord compression and increase fluid. Before amniotomy, nurse ensures: A. Fetal engagement B. Fetal lie C. Fetal attitude D. Fetal position Correct Answer: A Rationale: Prevents cord prolapse. Rh-negative client needs which medication before external version? A. Oxytocin B. Magnesium sulfate C. Rho(D) immune globulin D. Prostaglandin Correct Answer: C Rationale: Prevents Rh sensitization.