CIEMT -EMT FINAL EXAM 1
1. Which of the following are components of the primary
assessment in EMT care?
A. Airway
B. Breathing
C. Circulation
D. Patient history
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: The primary assessment focuses on airway,
breathing, and circulation (ABC) to identify life-threatening
conditions immediately. Patient history is part of the secondary
assessment.
2. What are the normal vital sign ranges for a healthy adult?
A. Heart rate: 60–100 bpm
B. Respiratory rate: 12–20 breaths/min
C. Blood pressure: 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg
D. Oxygen saturation: 85–90%
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Normal adult vital signs include HR 60–100, RR 12–
20, BP 90/60–120/80, and SpO2 ≥95%. 85–90% oxygen
saturation indicates hypoxemia.
3. Which conditions require immediate oxygen administration
in the prehospital setting?
A. Shortness of breath
B. Chest pain with suspected myocardial infarction
C. Stroke
,D. Minor laceration
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Oxygen is critical for conditions where tissue
hypoxia is likely. Minor lacerations without systemic
compromise do not require oxygen.
4. What are the indications for using an oropharyngeal airway
(OPA)?
A. Unconscious patient without a gag reflex
B. Conscious patient
C. Patient with a suspected cervical spine injury
D. Cardiac arrest patient
Correct Answers: A, D
Rationale: OPAs maintain airway patency in unconscious
patients or during cardiac arrest. Conscious patients usually
have a gag reflex, making OPA placement dangerous.
5. In trauma patients, what are the priorities of spinal motion
restriction?
A. Maintain neutral alignment
B. Immobilize the spine during transport
C. Perform aggressive neck movements to assess pain
D. Protect the spinal cord from further injury
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Rationale: Neutral alignment and spinal immobilization are
critical to prevent secondary spinal cord injury. Aggressive
movements are contraindicated.
,6. Which of the following signs indicate respiratory distress in
a patient?
A. Use of accessory muscles
B. Cyanosis
C. Slow, regular breathing
D. Nasal flaring
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Rationale: Accessory muscle use, cyanosis, and nasal flaring
indicate increased work of breathing. Slow, regular breathing is
generally normal.
7. Which medications are commonly carried by EMTs for
prehospital emergencies?
A. Oxygen
B. Epinephrine auto-injector
C. Aspirin
D. Insulin
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: EMTs carry oxygen, epinephrine, and aspirin for
emergencies. Insulin is typically administered by trained
healthcare providers in a controlled setting.
8. What is the appropriate compression-to-ventilation ratio
for adult CPR in a single rescuer?
A. 30:2
B. 15:2
C. 100:2
D. 30:1
, Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend 30 chest
compressions followed by 2 ventilations for adults during CPR
by a single rescuer.
9. Which of the following are common causes of shock in the
prehospital setting?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Dehydration
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Shock is caused by hypovolemia, distributive
processes, or cardiogenic issues. Hyperglycemia alone does not
typically cause acute shock.
10. What are the primary functions of the circulatory system
in the human body?
A. Transport oxygen and nutrients
B. Remove waste products
C. Regulate temperature
D. Digest food
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: The circulatory system delivers oxygen/nutrients,
removes metabolic wastes, and helps regulate body
temperature. Digestion is primarily a gastrointestinal function.
11. Which of the following are types of shock?
A. Hypovolemic
1. Which of the following are components of the primary
assessment in EMT care?
A. Airway
B. Breathing
C. Circulation
D. Patient history
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: The primary assessment focuses on airway,
breathing, and circulation (ABC) to identify life-threatening
conditions immediately. Patient history is part of the secondary
assessment.
2. What are the normal vital sign ranges for a healthy adult?
A. Heart rate: 60–100 bpm
B. Respiratory rate: 12–20 breaths/min
C. Blood pressure: 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg
D. Oxygen saturation: 85–90%
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Normal adult vital signs include HR 60–100, RR 12–
20, BP 90/60–120/80, and SpO2 ≥95%. 85–90% oxygen
saturation indicates hypoxemia.
3. Which conditions require immediate oxygen administration
in the prehospital setting?
A. Shortness of breath
B. Chest pain with suspected myocardial infarction
C. Stroke
,D. Minor laceration
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Oxygen is critical for conditions where tissue
hypoxia is likely. Minor lacerations without systemic
compromise do not require oxygen.
4. What are the indications for using an oropharyngeal airway
(OPA)?
A. Unconscious patient without a gag reflex
B. Conscious patient
C. Patient with a suspected cervical spine injury
D. Cardiac arrest patient
Correct Answers: A, D
Rationale: OPAs maintain airway patency in unconscious
patients or during cardiac arrest. Conscious patients usually
have a gag reflex, making OPA placement dangerous.
5. In trauma patients, what are the priorities of spinal motion
restriction?
A. Maintain neutral alignment
B. Immobilize the spine during transport
C. Perform aggressive neck movements to assess pain
D. Protect the spinal cord from further injury
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Rationale: Neutral alignment and spinal immobilization are
critical to prevent secondary spinal cord injury. Aggressive
movements are contraindicated.
,6. Which of the following signs indicate respiratory distress in
a patient?
A. Use of accessory muscles
B. Cyanosis
C. Slow, regular breathing
D. Nasal flaring
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Rationale: Accessory muscle use, cyanosis, and nasal flaring
indicate increased work of breathing. Slow, regular breathing is
generally normal.
7. Which medications are commonly carried by EMTs for
prehospital emergencies?
A. Oxygen
B. Epinephrine auto-injector
C. Aspirin
D. Insulin
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: EMTs carry oxygen, epinephrine, and aspirin for
emergencies. Insulin is typically administered by trained
healthcare providers in a controlled setting.
8. What is the appropriate compression-to-ventilation ratio
for adult CPR in a single rescuer?
A. 30:2
B. 15:2
C. 100:2
D. 30:1
, Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend 30 chest
compressions followed by 2 ventilations for adults during CPR
by a single rescuer.
9. Which of the following are common causes of shock in the
prehospital setting?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Dehydration
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Shock is caused by hypovolemia, distributive
processes, or cardiogenic issues. Hyperglycemia alone does not
typically cause acute shock.
10. What are the primary functions of the circulatory system
in the human body?
A. Transport oxygen and nutrients
B. Remove waste products
C. Regulate temperature
D. Digest food
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: The circulatory system delivers oxygen/nutrients,
removes metabolic wastes, and helps regulate body
temperature. Digestion is primarily a gastrointestinal function.
11. Which of the following are types of shock?
A. Hypovolemic
