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COMSAE EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026 | ACTUAL EXAM ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) {150 Q & A} GRADED A+ | BRAND NEW 2026/2027 UPDATE | 100% GUARANTEED PASS.

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COMSAE EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026 | ACTUAL EXAM ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) {150 Q & A} GRADED A+ | BRAND NEW 2026/2027 UPDATE | 100% GUARANTEED PASS. A 22-year-old woman presents to the office for evaluation of malaise and easy bruising. She also reports increased menses over the past 2 months. Review of records reveals a hospital admission 6 months ago secondary to viral pneumonia. Physical examination findings are normal. Laboratory study results are normal except for a platelet count of 45 × 103/mcL (reference range: 150-450 × 103/mcL). The most likely diagnosis is A. factor VII deficiency B. IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schönlein purpura) C. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura E. von Willebrand disease - Correct Answer C. IDIOPATHIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURA (ITP) An acquired form of a low platelet count secondary to antibody formation against GpIIb/IIIa on platelets, without any perturbation of the structure or function of WBCs, RBCs, or coagulation factors (i.e., isolated thrombocytopenia). It is a diagnosis of exclusion without specific clinical or laboratory parameters. A 21-year-old woman presents to the office with a 6-month history of increasing low back pain. She reports that she competes as a figure skater, and the pain began following a bad landing. She describes the pain as achy and localized to the lumbosacral junction. A radiograph of the spine taken 1 month ago reveals the findings shown in the exhibit. Neurologic examination findings are normal, with no focal motor deficits. Structural examination reveals increased tone in the lumbar Page 2 of 81 paravertebral muscles with midline tenderness in the lumbosacral area. Which of the following injuries did this patient most likely sustain? A. acute L3 flexion somatic dysfunction B .acute right unilateral sacral flexion C. fracture of the L5 pars interarticularis D. L5 vertebral compression fracture E. muscle strain of the quadratus lumborum - Correct Answer C. FRACTURE OF THE L5 PARS INTERARTICULARIS A male neonate is evaluated in the labor and delivery room immediately after delivery for tachypnea and room air hypoxia. The patient was delivered via cesarean section due to fetal tachycardia and nonreassuring fetal heart tones. The mother had limited prenatal care. Vital signs reveal a respiratory rate of 80-100/min. Physical examination reveals intercostal and subcostal retractions and nasal flaring. The abdomen appears scaphoid. Chest auscultation reveals decreased lung sounds on the left and a right shift of heart sounds. The most appropriate diagnostic test is A. arterial blood gas analysis B. chest radiography C. echocardiography D. fluoroscopy E. oxygen challenge test - Correct Answer B. CHEST RADIOGRAPHY The clinical scenario describes a neonate w/respiratory distress immediately after birth, w/ signs including tachypnea, nasal flaring, intercostal and subcostal retractions, decreased lung sounds on the left, and a rightward shift of the heart sounds. The scaphoid abdomen is particularly concerning for congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), a Page 3 of 81 condition where abdominal contents herniate into the chest, leading to lung hypoplasia and displacement of the heart and mediastinum. Chest radiography is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis by visualizing the herniated abdominal organs within the chest cavity. Other options, such as arterial blood gas analysis or echocardiography, do not provide the immediate anatomical information needed in this scenario. A 22-year-old primigravid woman at 13 weeks' gestation presents to the office for her first prenatal examination. She reports experiencing vaginal discharge for the past 3 days. On questioning, she says that she has had 3 different sexual partners in the past month. She reports no history of sexually transmitted infections. Pelvic examination reveals a uterus compatible with dates, slight tenderness to palpation, and no adnexal masses. Further examination reveals thin, white, malodorous discharge, which is found to have a pH of 5.5. Microscopic examination reveals epithelial cells covered with short coccobacillus-type bacteria. What is this patient at the greatest risk of developing? a. abruptio placentae b. future ectopic pregnancy c. gestational diabetes d. gestational hypertension e. preterm labor - Correct Answer E. preterm labor The patient described has findings consistent with bacterial vaginosis (BV), as indicated by the thin, white, malodorous discharge, a vaginal pH of 5.5, and the presence of clue cells (epithelial cells covered with coccobacillus-type bacteria) on microscopy. Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of preterm labor and delivery. Therefore, the patient is at the greatest risk of developing preterm labor. Gestational diabetes (option C) is not directly associated with BV, making preterm labor the more appropriate choice. An 18-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by EMS after he was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision, during which he struck his chest on the steering wheel. He is now experiencing shortness Page 4 of 81 of breath. On arrival, he is awake and reports severe chest pain. He appears to be in significant distress. Vital signs reveal: BP= 86/50 mmHg, HR= 130/min, RR= 30/min, Oxygen saturation= 80% on room air P.E. reveals: - Distended neck veins - Midline trachea - Bruising on the left chest wall with pain on palpation but no obvious crepitation - Hyperresonance of the left chest on percussion - Normal lung sounds on the right - Significantly diminished lung sounds on the left - Significant left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention? a. endotracheal intubation b. needle decompression c. normal saline bolus d. pericardiocentesis e. thoracotomy - Correct Answer B. NEEDLE DECOMPRESSION This patient presents with signs and symptoms indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency. The findings of distended neck veins, hyperresonance on the left side of the chest, diminished lung sounds on the left, and severe respiratory distress with hypotension are all classic signs. Immediate needle decompression is the correct initial intervention to relieve the pressure in the pleural space, allowing the lung to re-expand and improving the patient's hemodynamics and respiratory status. A 48y.o. woman presents to ED w/a 12-hour hx of upper abdominal pain that began suddenly. She reports nausea & vomiting for past 4 hrs. She describes the pain as sharp, achy, constant, & worsening. She says pain is worse when she moves or takes a deep breath. Past med hx reveals peptic ulcer dz, for which she takes famotidine. Temp= 37.3°C (99.2°F), BP= 150/90 mmHg, HR= 110/min, RR= 20/min, O2 sat= 98% room air Page 5 of 81 P.E. reveals distended abdomen w/marked diffuse tenderness, hypoactive bowel sounds, & no organomegaly. A radiograph of chest & abdomen is obtained, as shown in the exhibit. The most appropriate next step for this pt is to A. administer a 2-L bolus of crystalloid solution B. order a CT scan of the abdomen & pelvis with contrast C. obtain an immediate surgical consultation & prepare pt for surgery D. order a type and crossmatch for 6 units of packed red blood cells E. order an emergency upper & lower endoscopy - Correct Answer C. obtain an immediate surgical consultation & prepare pt for surgery The patient's history of sudden onset upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and worsening symptoms, along with physical examination findings of a distended abdomen, diffuse tenderness, hypoactive bowel sounds, and absence of organomegaly, are concerning for a perforated viscus, such as a perforated peptic ulcer. The radiograph also shows free air under the diaphragm, which is a classic sign of a perforated gastrointestinal tract, indicating pneumoperitoneum. The correct management in this scenario would be to obtain an immediate surgical consultation and prepare the patient for surgery (option C), as this is a life-threatening condition that typically requires emergent surgical intervention. A 13-month-old boy is brought to the office by his parent for a health maintenance examination. The parent has no concerns. Examination reveals that the patient is meeting all developmental milestones for a child his age. As part of the visit, you review accident and burn prevention

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Page 1 of 81




COMSAE EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026 | ACTUAL EXAM ALL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
{150 Q & A} GRADED A+ | BRAND NEW 2026/2027 UPDATE |
100% GUARANTEED PASS.



✅ A 22-year-old woman presents to the office for evaluation of malaise
and easy bruising. She also reports increased menses over the past 2
months. Review of records reveals a hospital admission 6 months ago
secondary to viral pneumonia. Physical examination findings are normal.
Laboratory study results are normal except for a platelet count of 45 ×
103/mcL (reference range: 150-450 × 103/mcL). The most likely diagnosis
is
A. factor VII deficiency
B. IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schönlein purpura)
C. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
D. thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
E. von Willebrand disease - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > C. IDIOPATHIC
THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURA (ITP)
An acquired form of a low platelet count secondary to antibody formation
against GpIIb/IIIa on platelets, without any perturbation of the structure or
function of WBCs, RBCs, or coagulation factors (i.e., isolated
thrombocytopenia). It is a diagnosis of exclusion without specific clinical
or laboratory parameters.


✅ A 21-year-old woman presents to the office with a 6-month history of
increasing low back pain. She reports that she competes as a figure
skater, and the pain began following a bad landing. She describes the pain
as achy and localized to the lumbosacral junction. A radiograph of the
spine taken 1 month ago reveals the findings shown in the exhibit.
Neurologic examination findings are normal, with no focal motor deficits.
Structural examination reveals increased tone in the lumbar

,Page 2 of 81



paravertebral muscles with midline tenderness in the lumbosacral area.
Which of the following injuries did this patient most likely sustain?
A. acute L3 flexion somatic dysfunction
B .acute right unilateral sacral flexion
C. fracture of the L5 pars interarticularis
D. L5 vertebral compression fracture
E. muscle strain of the quadratus lumborum - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer >
C. FRACTURE OF THE L5 PARS INTERARTICULARIS




✅ A male neonate is evaluated in the labor and delivery room
immediately after delivery for tachypnea and room air hypoxia. The patient
was delivered via cesarean section due to fetal tachycardia and non-
reassuring fetal heart tones. The mother had limited prenatal care. Vital
signs reveal a respiratory rate of 80-100/min. Physical examination
reveals intercostal and subcostal retractions and nasal flaring. The
abdomen appears scaphoid. Chest auscultation reveals decreased lung
sounds on the left and a right shift of heart sounds. The most appropriate
diagnostic test is
A. arterial blood gas analysis
B. chest radiography
C. echocardiography
D. fluoroscopy
E. oxygen challenge test - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > B. CHEST
RADIOGRAPHY
The clinical scenario describes a neonate w/respiratory distress
immediately after birth, w/ signs including tachypnea, nasal flaring,
intercostal and subcostal retractions, decreased lung sounds on the left,
and a rightward shift of the heart sounds. The scaphoid abdomen is
particularly concerning for congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), a

,Page 3 of 81



condition where abdominal contents herniate into the chest, leading to
lung hypoplasia and displacement of the heart and mediastinum.

Chest radiography is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the
diagnosis by visualizing the herniated abdominal organs within the chest
cavity. Other options, such as arterial blood gas analysis or
echocardiography, do not provide the immediate anatomical information
needed in this scenario.


A 22-year-old primigravid woman at 13 weeks' gestation presents to the
office for her first prenatal examination. She reports experiencing vaginal
discharge for the past 3 days. On questioning, she says that she has had 3
different sexual partners in the past month. She reports no history of
sexually transmitted infections. Pelvic examination reveals a uterus
compatible with dates, slight tenderness to palpation, and no adnexal
masses. Further examination reveals thin, white, malodorous discharge,
which is found to have a pH of 5.5. Microscopic examination reveals
epithelial cells covered with short coccobacillus-type bacteria. What is
this patient at the greatest risk of developing?
a. abruptio placentae
b. future ectopic pregnancy
c. gestational diabetes
d. gestational hypertension
e. preterm labor - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > E. preterm labor The patient
described has findings consistent with bacterial vaginosis (BV), as
indicated by the thin, white, malodorous discharge, a vaginal pH of 5.5,
and the presence of clue cells (epithelial cells covered with
coccobacillus-type bacteria) on microscopy. Bacterial vaginosis during
pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of preterm labor and
delivery. Therefore, the patient is at the greatest risk of developing
preterm labor. Gestational diabetes (option C) is not directly associated
with BV, making preterm labor the more appropriate choice.

An 18-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by EMS after
he was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision, during which he
struck his chest on the steering wheel. He is now experiencing shortness

, Page 4 of 81



of breath. On arrival, he is awake and reports severe chest pain. He
appears to be in significant distress.
Vital signs reveal:
BP= 86/50 mmHg, HR= 130/min, RR= 30/min, Oxygen saturation= 80% on
room air P.E. reveals:
- Distended neck veins
- Midline trachea
- Bruising on the left chest wall with pain on palpation but no obvious
crepitation
- Hyperresonance of the left chest on percussion
- Normal lung sounds on the right
- Significantly diminished lung sounds on the left
- Significant left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
a. endotracheal intubation
b. needle decompression
c. normal saline bolus
d. pericardiocentesis
e. thoracotomy - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > B. NEEDLE DECOMPRESSION This
patient presents with signs and symptoms indicative of a tension
pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency. The findings of distended
neck veins, hyperresonance on the left side of the chest, diminished
lung sounds on the left, and severe respiratory distress with
hypotension are all classic signs. Immediate needle decompression is
the correct initial intervention to relieve the pressure in the pleural
space, allowing the lung to re-expand and improving the patient's
hemodynamics and respiratory status.

A 48y.o. woman presents to ED w/a 12-hour hx of upper abdominal pain
that began suddenly. She reports nausea & vomiting for past 4 hrs. She
describes the pain as sharp, achy, constant, & worsening. She says pain is
worse when she moves or takes a deep breath. Past med hx reveals
peptic ulcer dz, for which she takes famotidine.
Temp= 37.3°C (99.2°F), BP= 150/90 mmHg, HR= 110/min, RR=
20/min, O2 sat= 98% room air

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