NR 302 EXAM 2 (ACTUAL EXAM 2026) | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS | NEW & UPDATED VERSION
Question 1
When examining the eye, the nurse notices that the patient's eyelid margins approximate
completely when closed. The nurse recognizes that this assessment finding:
A) Indicates potential cranial nerve damage
B) Suggests a history of eyelid trauma
C) Is an expected, normal finding
D) Requires a referral to an ophthalmologist
E) Indicates a diagnosis of exophthalmos
Correct Answer: C) Is an expected, normal finding
Rationale: The palpebral fissure is the elliptical open space between the eyelids. In a healthy
individual, when the eyes are closed, the lid margins should meet or approximate
completely. This ensures the protection and lubrication of the cornea.
Question 2
During an ocular examination, the nurse recalls that the movement of the extraocular muscles
(EOMs) is stimulated by which cranial nerves?
A) CNs II, III, and IV
B) CNs III, IV, and VI
C) CNs V, VII, and IX
D) CNs I, II, and III
E) CNs VII, VIII, and X
Correct Answer: B) CNs III, IV, and VI
Rationale: Three cranial nerves are responsible for eye movement: the Oculomotor (CN
III), Trochlear (CN IV), and Abducens (CN VI). CN II is the optic nerve, which is
responsible for vision (sensory), not muscle movement.
Question 3
The nurse is performing an external eye examination. Which statement regarding the outer layer
of the eye is true?
A) The outer layer is primarily responsible for color vision
B) The outer layer is the choroid and is non-sensitive
C) The outer layer consists of the cornea and sclera and is very sensitive to touch
D) The outer layer contains the retina and the optic disc
E) The outer layer is highly vascularized to prevent infection
Correct Answer: C) The outer layer consists of the cornea and sclera and is very sensitive to
touch
Rationale: The cornea and the sclera make up the fibrous outer layer of the eye. The cornea
, 2
is extremely sensitive to touch, which triggers the blink reflex via CN V (trigeminal) and
CN VII (facial). The retina is the inner layer, and the choroid is the middle layer.
Question 4
When examining a patient’s eyes, the nurse recalls that stimulation of the sympathetic branch of
the autonomic nervous system:
A) Constricts the pupil and lowers the eyelid
B) Elevates the eyelid and dilates the pupil
C) Causes the eyes to water excessively
D) Leads to redness in the conjunctiva
E) Inhibits the movement of the EOMs
Correct Answer: B) Elevates the eyelid and dilates the pupil
Rationale: Sympathetic stimulation (the "fight or flight" response) triggers the dilator
pupillae muscle to widen the pupil (mydriasis) and the tarsal muscles to elevate the eyelid,
allowing more light into the eye and increasing the visual field.
Question 5
The nurse is reviewing causes of increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of these factors
primarily determines intraocular pressure?
A) The thickness of the lens
B) The amount of tears produced by the lacrimal gland
C) The balance between the amount of aqueous produced and the resistance to its outflow
D) The strength of the extraocular muscles
E) The blood pressure within the retinal arteries
Correct Answer: C) The balance between the amount of aqueous produced and the
resistance to its outflow
Rationale: Intraocular pressure is maintained by the aqueous humor. If the production of
aqueous humor exceeds its drainage through the angle of the anterior chamber, IOP rises,
which is the primary mechanism in glaucoma.
Question 6
The nurse is conducting a visual examination. Which statement regarding visual pathways and
visual fields is true?
A) The image on the retina is upright and mirrored
B) The right side of the brain interprets the right visual field
C) The image formed on the retina is upside down and reversed
D) Light waves are converted to nerve impulses in the cornea
E) All visual information stays on the same side of the brain
Correct Answer: C) The image formed on the retina is upside down and reversed
Rationale: Due to the refractory nature of the lens, images are projected onto the retina
, 3
upside down and reversed from right to left. The brain then re-inverts the image during
processing.
Question 7
The nurse is testing a patient’s visual accommodation. Which of the following describes the
normal accommodation response?
A) Pupillary dilation when looking at a near object
B) Constriction of the pupils when looking at a distant object
C) Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object
D) Inability of the eyes to focus on moving objects
E) Redness of the sclera during prolonged reading
Correct Answer: C) Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object
Rationale: Accommodation is the eye's adaptation for near vision. It involves pupillary
constriction and convergence of the axes of the eyes as the person shifts their gaze from a
distant object to a near one.
Question 8
A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex. The nurse recognizes that this reflex indicates that:
A) The eye can distinguish between primary colors
B) Constriction of both pupils occurs in response to bright light
C) The patient has 20/20 vision
D) The cornea is moist and healthy
E) Only the eye being shined with light will constrict
Correct Answer: B) Constriction of both pupils occurs in response to bright light
Rationale: The pupillary light reflex is the normal constriction of the pupils when exposed
to bright light. It includes a direct reflex (constriction of the eye receiving the light) and a
consensual reflex (simultaneous constriction of the other eye).
Question 9
A mother asks when her newborn infant’s eyesight will be fully developed. The nurse should
reply:
A) Vision is fully developed at birth
B) Infants can see all colors clearly by 1 month of age
C) By approximately 3 months, infants develop coordinated eye movements and can fixate on an
object
D) Infants do not develop depth perception until age 2
E) Vision is not functional until the infant begins to walk
Correct Answer: C) By approximately 3 months, infants develop coordinated eye movements
and can fixate on an object
Rationale: At birth, eye movements are poorly coordinated. By 3 to 4 months of age, the
, 4
infant establishes binocularity and can fixate on a single image with both eyes
simultaneously.
Question 10
Which physiologic change is responsible for presbyopia in aging adults?
A) Thickening of the retina
B) Loss of lens elasticity
C) Increased production of vitreous humor
D) Shortening of the eyeball
E) Paralysis of the extraocular muscles
Correct Answer: B) Loss of lens elasticity
Rationale: As people age, the lens becomes more rigid and loses its ability to change shape
(accommodate) for near vision. This condition is called presbyopia and typically begins in
the mid-40s.
Question 11
Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to see when examining the eyes of a Black
patient?
A) A pale white retinal background
B) A blue-tinted sclera
C) A dark retinal background
D) Absence of a red reflex
E) A lack of eyelashes
Correct Answer: C) A dark retinal background
Rationale: The color of the retinal fundus varies with the person's skin color. In dark-
skinned individuals, the retinal background appears darker and more heavily pigmented
than in light-skinned individuals.
Question 12
A 52-year-old patient describes the presence of occasional floaters or spots moving in front of his
eyes. The nurse should:
A) Advise the patient that this is a sign of an impending stroke
B) Refer the patient for emergency surgery for retinal detachment
C) Know that floaters are usually insignificant and are caused by condensed vitreous fibers
D) Tell the patient to use eye drops to dissolve the spots
E) Assume the patient is having a visual hallucination
Correct Answer: C) Know that floaters are usually insignificant and are caused by
condensed vitreous fibers
Rationale: Vitreous floaters are common in middle age due to the condensation of fibers
within the vitreous humor. While a "flood" of new floaters can indicate retinal detachment,
occasional spots are generally a normal part of aging.
DETAILED ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS | NEW & UPDATED VERSION
Question 1
When examining the eye, the nurse notices that the patient's eyelid margins approximate
completely when closed. The nurse recognizes that this assessment finding:
A) Indicates potential cranial nerve damage
B) Suggests a history of eyelid trauma
C) Is an expected, normal finding
D) Requires a referral to an ophthalmologist
E) Indicates a diagnosis of exophthalmos
Correct Answer: C) Is an expected, normal finding
Rationale: The palpebral fissure is the elliptical open space between the eyelids. In a healthy
individual, when the eyes are closed, the lid margins should meet or approximate
completely. This ensures the protection and lubrication of the cornea.
Question 2
During an ocular examination, the nurse recalls that the movement of the extraocular muscles
(EOMs) is stimulated by which cranial nerves?
A) CNs II, III, and IV
B) CNs III, IV, and VI
C) CNs V, VII, and IX
D) CNs I, II, and III
E) CNs VII, VIII, and X
Correct Answer: B) CNs III, IV, and VI
Rationale: Three cranial nerves are responsible for eye movement: the Oculomotor (CN
III), Trochlear (CN IV), and Abducens (CN VI). CN II is the optic nerve, which is
responsible for vision (sensory), not muscle movement.
Question 3
The nurse is performing an external eye examination. Which statement regarding the outer layer
of the eye is true?
A) The outer layer is primarily responsible for color vision
B) The outer layer is the choroid and is non-sensitive
C) The outer layer consists of the cornea and sclera and is very sensitive to touch
D) The outer layer contains the retina and the optic disc
E) The outer layer is highly vascularized to prevent infection
Correct Answer: C) The outer layer consists of the cornea and sclera and is very sensitive to
touch
Rationale: The cornea and the sclera make up the fibrous outer layer of the eye. The cornea
, 2
is extremely sensitive to touch, which triggers the blink reflex via CN V (trigeminal) and
CN VII (facial). The retina is the inner layer, and the choroid is the middle layer.
Question 4
When examining a patient’s eyes, the nurse recalls that stimulation of the sympathetic branch of
the autonomic nervous system:
A) Constricts the pupil and lowers the eyelid
B) Elevates the eyelid and dilates the pupil
C) Causes the eyes to water excessively
D) Leads to redness in the conjunctiva
E) Inhibits the movement of the EOMs
Correct Answer: B) Elevates the eyelid and dilates the pupil
Rationale: Sympathetic stimulation (the "fight or flight" response) triggers the dilator
pupillae muscle to widen the pupil (mydriasis) and the tarsal muscles to elevate the eyelid,
allowing more light into the eye and increasing the visual field.
Question 5
The nurse is reviewing causes of increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of these factors
primarily determines intraocular pressure?
A) The thickness of the lens
B) The amount of tears produced by the lacrimal gland
C) The balance between the amount of aqueous produced and the resistance to its outflow
D) The strength of the extraocular muscles
E) The blood pressure within the retinal arteries
Correct Answer: C) The balance between the amount of aqueous produced and the
resistance to its outflow
Rationale: Intraocular pressure is maintained by the aqueous humor. If the production of
aqueous humor exceeds its drainage through the angle of the anterior chamber, IOP rises,
which is the primary mechanism in glaucoma.
Question 6
The nurse is conducting a visual examination. Which statement regarding visual pathways and
visual fields is true?
A) The image on the retina is upright and mirrored
B) The right side of the brain interprets the right visual field
C) The image formed on the retina is upside down and reversed
D) Light waves are converted to nerve impulses in the cornea
E) All visual information stays on the same side of the brain
Correct Answer: C) The image formed on the retina is upside down and reversed
Rationale: Due to the refractory nature of the lens, images are projected onto the retina
, 3
upside down and reversed from right to left. The brain then re-inverts the image during
processing.
Question 7
The nurse is testing a patient’s visual accommodation. Which of the following describes the
normal accommodation response?
A) Pupillary dilation when looking at a near object
B) Constriction of the pupils when looking at a distant object
C) Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object
D) Inability of the eyes to focus on moving objects
E) Redness of the sclera during prolonged reading
Correct Answer: C) Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object
Rationale: Accommodation is the eye's adaptation for near vision. It involves pupillary
constriction and convergence of the axes of the eyes as the person shifts their gaze from a
distant object to a near one.
Question 8
A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex. The nurse recognizes that this reflex indicates that:
A) The eye can distinguish between primary colors
B) Constriction of both pupils occurs in response to bright light
C) The patient has 20/20 vision
D) The cornea is moist and healthy
E) Only the eye being shined with light will constrict
Correct Answer: B) Constriction of both pupils occurs in response to bright light
Rationale: The pupillary light reflex is the normal constriction of the pupils when exposed
to bright light. It includes a direct reflex (constriction of the eye receiving the light) and a
consensual reflex (simultaneous constriction of the other eye).
Question 9
A mother asks when her newborn infant’s eyesight will be fully developed. The nurse should
reply:
A) Vision is fully developed at birth
B) Infants can see all colors clearly by 1 month of age
C) By approximately 3 months, infants develop coordinated eye movements and can fixate on an
object
D) Infants do not develop depth perception until age 2
E) Vision is not functional until the infant begins to walk
Correct Answer: C) By approximately 3 months, infants develop coordinated eye movements
and can fixate on an object
Rationale: At birth, eye movements are poorly coordinated. By 3 to 4 months of age, the
, 4
infant establishes binocularity and can fixate on a single image with both eyes
simultaneously.
Question 10
Which physiologic change is responsible for presbyopia in aging adults?
A) Thickening of the retina
B) Loss of lens elasticity
C) Increased production of vitreous humor
D) Shortening of the eyeball
E) Paralysis of the extraocular muscles
Correct Answer: B) Loss of lens elasticity
Rationale: As people age, the lens becomes more rigid and loses its ability to change shape
(accommodate) for near vision. This condition is called presbyopia and typically begins in
the mid-40s.
Question 11
Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to see when examining the eyes of a Black
patient?
A) A pale white retinal background
B) A blue-tinted sclera
C) A dark retinal background
D) Absence of a red reflex
E) A lack of eyelashes
Correct Answer: C) A dark retinal background
Rationale: The color of the retinal fundus varies with the person's skin color. In dark-
skinned individuals, the retinal background appears darker and more heavily pigmented
than in light-skinned individuals.
Question 12
A 52-year-old patient describes the presence of occasional floaters or spots moving in front of his
eyes. The nurse should:
A) Advise the patient that this is a sign of an impending stroke
B) Refer the patient for emergency surgery for retinal detachment
C) Know that floaters are usually insignificant and are caused by condensed vitreous fibers
D) Tell the patient to use eye drops to dissolve the spots
E) Assume the patient is having a visual hallucination
Correct Answer: C) Know that floaters are usually insignificant and are caused by
condensed vitreous fibers
Rationale: Vitreous floaters are common in middle age due to the condensation of fibers
within the vitreous humor. While a "flood" of new floaters can indicate retinal detachment,
occasional spots are generally a normal part of aging.
