ATI MED SURG IMMUNE & INFECTION, ATI MED
SURG ONCOLOGY, ATI MED SURG CARDIOVASCULAR
NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS ON THE FIRST ATTEMPT
1. A patient with HIV is prescribed antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which
laboratory value indicates effective treatment?
A. CD4 count of 120 cells/mm³
B. Viral load undetectable
C. WBC count of 3,500/mm³
D. ESR elevated
Answer: B
Rationale: Effective ART reduces viral load to undetectable levels. CD4
counts may remain low initially, but viral suppression indicates therapy
success.
2. A client presents with fever, cough, and purulent sputum. The provider
suspects bacterial pneumonia. Which initial intervention is highest priority?
A. Administer antipyretics
B. Obtain sputum culture
C. Begin empiric antibiotics
D. Encourage fluids
Answer: C
Rationale: Early empiric antibiotics reduce morbidity and mortality in
suspected bacterial pneumonia. Culture is obtained prior to antibiotics if
possible but treatment should not be delayed.
,3. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Elevated liver enzymes
C. Mild nausea
D. Slight joint stiffness
Answer: B
Rationale: Methotrexate can cause hepatotoxicity; elevated liver enzymes
indicate potential liver injury and require intervention.
4. A nurse is teaching a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) about
flare prevention. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “I should avoid the sun when possible.”
B. “I can stop medications if I feel well.”
C. “I do not need regular check-ups.”
D. “I should increase activity during flares.”
Answer: A
Rationale: Sun exposure can trigger SLE flares; medication adherence and
regular monitoring are critical.
5. A patient with a severe allergic reaction receives epinephrine. What is the
primary action of this drug?
A. Decrease inflammation
B. Stimulate histamine release
C. Promote bronchodilation and vasoconstriction
D. Reduce antibody production
Answer: C
Rationale: Epinephrine reverses airway constriction and hypotension during
anaphylaxis.
6. A patient presents with signs of sepsis. Which lab result supports this
diagnosis?
A. WBC 15,000/mm³
B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
D. Platelet 250,000/mm³
, Answer: A
Rationale: Leukocytosis is a common finding in sepsis; other lab
abnormalities may occur, but elevated WBC supports infection.
7. A patient with tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid. What teaching should the
nurse provide?
A. Avoid vitamin C supplements
B. Report yellowing of skin or eyes
C. Expect immediate symptom relief
D. Stop medication once symptoms improve
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause hepatotoxicity; jaundice is a warning sign.
Therapy must continue for the prescribed duration.
8. A client is diagnosed with shingles. Which precaution should the nurse
implement?
A. Airborne
B. Droplet
C. Contact
D. Standard only
Answer: C
Rationale: Shingles (herpes zoster) requires contact precautions to prevent
transmission of lesions to immunocompromised individuals.
9. A patient receiving vancomycin develops flushing, rash, and hypotension.
What is the likely cause?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Red man syndrome
C. Serum sickness
D. Anaphylaxis
Answer: B
Rationale: Red man syndrome is an infusion-related reaction to
vancomycin; slowing the infusion can prevent it.
, 10. A patient with influenza asks if antibiotics are needed. The nurse responds:
A. “Yes, to prevent secondary infections.”
B. “No, influenza is viral, not bacterial.”
C. “Only if your temperature exceeds 102°F.”
D. “Only after 5 days of illness.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections; influenza is
caused by a virus.
11. A patient with colorectal cancer is scheduled for chemotherapy. Which lab
value requires immediate intervention before starting therapy?
A. WBC 6,000/mm³
B. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) 400/mm³
C. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
D. Platelets 200,000/mm³
Answer: B
Rationale: ANC <500/mm³ indicates severe neutropenia; chemotherapy
must be delayed to prevent life-threatening infections.
12. A patient receiving cisplatin reports tinnitus and hearing loss. What action
should the nurse take?
A. Administer furosemide
B. Hold medication and notify provider
C. Document and continue therapy
D. Increase hydration
Answer: B
Rationale: Cisplatin can cause ototoxicity; new hearing changes require
provider notification and possible medication adjustment.
13. A patient undergoing radiation therapy reports fatigue. Which
recommendation is appropriate?
A. Exercise vigorously daily
B. Plan periods of rest throughout the day
C. Avoid all physical activity
D. Increase protein intake only
SURG ONCOLOGY, ATI MED SURG CARDIOVASCULAR
NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS ON THE FIRST ATTEMPT
1. A patient with HIV is prescribed antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which
laboratory value indicates effective treatment?
A. CD4 count of 120 cells/mm³
B. Viral load undetectable
C. WBC count of 3,500/mm³
D. ESR elevated
Answer: B
Rationale: Effective ART reduces viral load to undetectable levels. CD4
counts may remain low initially, but viral suppression indicates therapy
success.
2. A client presents with fever, cough, and purulent sputum. The provider
suspects bacterial pneumonia. Which initial intervention is highest priority?
A. Administer antipyretics
B. Obtain sputum culture
C. Begin empiric antibiotics
D. Encourage fluids
Answer: C
Rationale: Early empiric antibiotics reduce morbidity and mortality in
suspected bacterial pneumonia. Culture is obtained prior to antibiotics if
possible but treatment should not be delayed.
,3. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Elevated liver enzymes
C. Mild nausea
D. Slight joint stiffness
Answer: B
Rationale: Methotrexate can cause hepatotoxicity; elevated liver enzymes
indicate potential liver injury and require intervention.
4. A nurse is teaching a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) about
flare prevention. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “I should avoid the sun when possible.”
B. “I can stop medications if I feel well.”
C. “I do not need regular check-ups.”
D. “I should increase activity during flares.”
Answer: A
Rationale: Sun exposure can trigger SLE flares; medication adherence and
regular monitoring are critical.
5. A patient with a severe allergic reaction receives epinephrine. What is the
primary action of this drug?
A. Decrease inflammation
B. Stimulate histamine release
C. Promote bronchodilation and vasoconstriction
D. Reduce antibody production
Answer: C
Rationale: Epinephrine reverses airway constriction and hypotension during
anaphylaxis.
6. A patient presents with signs of sepsis. Which lab result supports this
diagnosis?
A. WBC 15,000/mm³
B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
D. Platelet 250,000/mm³
, Answer: A
Rationale: Leukocytosis is a common finding in sepsis; other lab
abnormalities may occur, but elevated WBC supports infection.
7. A patient with tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid. What teaching should the
nurse provide?
A. Avoid vitamin C supplements
B. Report yellowing of skin or eyes
C. Expect immediate symptom relief
D. Stop medication once symptoms improve
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause hepatotoxicity; jaundice is a warning sign.
Therapy must continue for the prescribed duration.
8. A client is diagnosed with shingles. Which precaution should the nurse
implement?
A. Airborne
B. Droplet
C. Contact
D. Standard only
Answer: C
Rationale: Shingles (herpes zoster) requires contact precautions to prevent
transmission of lesions to immunocompromised individuals.
9. A patient receiving vancomycin develops flushing, rash, and hypotension.
What is the likely cause?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Red man syndrome
C. Serum sickness
D. Anaphylaxis
Answer: B
Rationale: Red man syndrome is an infusion-related reaction to
vancomycin; slowing the infusion can prevent it.
, 10. A patient with influenza asks if antibiotics are needed. The nurse responds:
A. “Yes, to prevent secondary infections.”
B. “No, influenza is viral, not bacterial.”
C. “Only if your temperature exceeds 102°F.”
D. “Only after 5 days of illness.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections; influenza is
caused by a virus.
11. A patient with colorectal cancer is scheduled for chemotherapy. Which lab
value requires immediate intervention before starting therapy?
A. WBC 6,000/mm³
B. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) 400/mm³
C. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
D. Platelets 200,000/mm³
Answer: B
Rationale: ANC <500/mm³ indicates severe neutropenia; chemotherapy
must be delayed to prevent life-threatening infections.
12. A patient receiving cisplatin reports tinnitus and hearing loss. What action
should the nurse take?
A. Administer furosemide
B. Hold medication and notify provider
C. Document and continue therapy
D. Increase hydration
Answer: B
Rationale: Cisplatin can cause ototoxicity; new hearing changes require
provider notification and possible medication adjustment.
13. A patient undergoing radiation therapy reports fatigue. Which
recommendation is appropriate?
A. Exercise vigorously daily
B. Plan periods of rest throughout the day
C. Avoid all physical activity
D. Increase protein intake only
