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EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM 2 Actual Exam
2026/2027 Complete Questions and Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales Emergency Medical
Technician Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: EMT FISDAP Readiness Exam 2
AIRWAY MANAGEMENT & RESPIRATION
Q1: You arrive on scene to find a 45-year-old male construction worker who fell from
scaffolding. He is unconscious with gurgling respirations at 8 breaths per minute. What is your
immediate priority?
A. Apply a cervical collar
B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
C. Suction the airway. [CORRECT]
D. Begin positive pressure ventilation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gurgling respirations indicate the presence of fluids or vomitus in the airway.
According to the BLS airway algorithm, the immediate priority is to suction the airway to clear
secretions before any other intervention. This ensures a patent airway for subsequent
ventilations.
Q2: A 6-year-old patient has a foreign body airway obstruction. They are conscious, coughing
forcefully, and making high-pitched sounds. What is your appropriate intervention?
A. Perform abdominal thrusts immediately
B. Encourage continued coughing. [CORRECT]
C. Perform back blows
D. Begin CPR
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A patient with a partial airway obstruction who is conscious and coughing effectively
should be encouraged to continue coughing. This is the most effective way to clear the
obstruction. Interventions such as back blows or abdominal thrusts are reserved for severe
(complete) obstructions or when the patient becomes unconscious.
,2
Q3: Which oxygen delivery device provides the highest concentration of oxygen (up to 100%) to
a spontaneously breathing patient?
A. Simple face mask
B. Nasal cannula
C. Non-rebreather mask
D. Bag-valve mask with reservoir. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A bag-valve mask (BVM) with an oxygen reservoir and high-flow oxygen (10-15
L/min) can deliver nearly 100% oxygen to a spontaneously breathing patient. The non-rebreather
mask delivers 60-90%, the simple face mask 35-60%, and nasal cannula 24-44%.
Q4: You are ventilating an apneic adult patient with a BVM. The patient has no suspected spinal
injury. What is the proper rate of ventilation?
A. 8-10 breaths per minute
B. 10-12 breaths per minute. [CORRECT]
C. 12-20 breaths per minute
D. 20-24 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For an adult apneic patient without an advanced airway, ventilations should be
delivered at a rate of 10-12 breaths per minute (1 breath every 5-6 seconds). This rate prevents
hyperventilation while ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Q5: A patient has significant facial trauma with active bleeding into the oral cavity. They are
maintaining their own airway but have copious blood. What is your best immediate action?
A. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway
B. Suction for no more than 15 seconds. [CORRECT]
C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway immediately
D. Place the patient in the recovery position without suctioning
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be performed to clear blood from the airway, but each suctioning
attempt should be limited to 15 seconds to prevent hypoxia. This clears the airway while
minimizing the risk of oxygen desaturation.
,3
PATIENT ASSESSMENT - MEDICAL
Q6: During your primary assessment of a 67-year-old female with chest pain, you note she is
alert, has a patent airway, and respirations of 22 with adequate depth. Her radial pulse is present
at 88 bpm. Her skin is cool and diaphoretic. What is her priority status?
A. High priority (unstable). [CORRECT]
B. Low priority (stable)
C. Priority cannot be determined
D. Deceased
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Despite normal vital signs, this patient exhibits signs of poor perfusion (cool,
diaphoretic skin) consistent with cardiogenic shock. The presence of chest pain with signs of
shock makes this a high-priority (unstable) patient requiring immediate transport.
Q7: You are assessing a diabetic patient who is confused and combative. Their blood glucose
reads 42 mg/dL. After ensuring airway patency, what is your next appropriate intervention?
A. Start an IV and administer 25g D50
B. Administer oral glucose if the patient can swallow. [CORRECT]
C. Administer glucagon 1mg IM immediately
D. Transport immediately without intervention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a conscious patient with hypoglycemia who can protect their airway and swallow,
oral glucose is the preferred first-line treatment. It is faster acting than glucagon and less invasive
than IV dextrose.
Q8: A 52-year-old male presents with "tearing" chest pain radiating to his back. His blood
pressure is 180/110 mmHg in the right arm and 140/90 mmHg in the left arm. What condition
should you suspect?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection. [CORRECT]
D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The combination of tearing chest pain radiating to the back and a blood pressure
differential between arms (>20 mmHg systolic) is highly suggestive of aortic dissection. This is a
time-critical emergency requiring rapid transport.
, 4
Q9: During your secondary assessment of a patient with abdominal pain, you note rebound
tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. These findings suggest:
A. Gastritis
B. Appendicitis. [CORRECT]
C. Cholecystitis
D. Pancreatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rebound tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant (McBurney's point) are
classic signs of appendicitis. The peritoneal signs indicate inflammation of the peritoneum,
suggesting possible perforation.
Q10: A patient with a history of COPD presents with respiratory distress. Their SpO2 is 84% on
room air. What is your appropriate oxygen titration goal?
A. 94-98%
B. 88-92%. [CORRECT]
C. 100%
D. Maintain at 84%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients with COPD who retain CO2 should receive titrated oxygen to maintain SpO2
between 88-92%. Higher oxygen levels can suppress the hypoxic drive, leading to respiratory
depression and CO2 retention.
PATIENT ASSESSMENT - TRAUMA
Q11: You are called to a motorcycle crash. The rider is lying 30 feet from the bike, unconscious,
with obvious deformity to the right thigh. There is a pool of blood under the leg. What is your
first action after scene safety?
A. Apply traction splint to the leg
B. Manual stabilization of the head and neck. [CORRECT]
C. Apply direct pressure to bleeding
D. Check distal pulses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For any trauma patient with mechanism for spinal injury, the first priority after scene
EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM 2 Actual Exam
2026/2027 Complete Questions and Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales Emergency Medical
Technician Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: EMT FISDAP Readiness Exam 2
AIRWAY MANAGEMENT & RESPIRATION
Q1: You arrive on scene to find a 45-year-old male construction worker who fell from
scaffolding. He is unconscious with gurgling respirations at 8 breaths per minute. What is your
immediate priority?
A. Apply a cervical collar
B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
C. Suction the airway. [CORRECT]
D. Begin positive pressure ventilation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gurgling respirations indicate the presence of fluids or vomitus in the airway.
According to the BLS airway algorithm, the immediate priority is to suction the airway to clear
secretions before any other intervention. This ensures a patent airway for subsequent
ventilations.
Q2: A 6-year-old patient has a foreign body airway obstruction. They are conscious, coughing
forcefully, and making high-pitched sounds. What is your appropriate intervention?
A. Perform abdominal thrusts immediately
B. Encourage continued coughing. [CORRECT]
C. Perform back blows
D. Begin CPR
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A patient with a partial airway obstruction who is conscious and coughing effectively
should be encouraged to continue coughing. This is the most effective way to clear the
obstruction. Interventions such as back blows or abdominal thrusts are reserved for severe
(complete) obstructions or when the patient becomes unconscious.
,2
Q3: Which oxygen delivery device provides the highest concentration of oxygen (up to 100%) to
a spontaneously breathing patient?
A. Simple face mask
B. Nasal cannula
C. Non-rebreather mask
D. Bag-valve mask with reservoir. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A bag-valve mask (BVM) with an oxygen reservoir and high-flow oxygen (10-15
L/min) can deliver nearly 100% oxygen to a spontaneously breathing patient. The non-rebreather
mask delivers 60-90%, the simple face mask 35-60%, and nasal cannula 24-44%.
Q4: You are ventilating an apneic adult patient with a BVM. The patient has no suspected spinal
injury. What is the proper rate of ventilation?
A. 8-10 breaths per minute
B. 10-12 breaths per minute. [CORRECT]
C. 12-20 breaths per minute
D. 20-24 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For an adult apneic patient without an advanced airway, ventilations should be
delivered at a rate of 10-12 breaths per minute (1 breath every 5-6 seconds). This rate prevents
hyperventilation while ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Q5: A patient has significant facial trauma with active bleeding into the oral cavity. They are
maintaining their own airway but have copious blood. What is your best immediate action?
A. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway
B. Suction for no more than 15 seconds. [CORRECT]
C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway immediately
D. Place the patient in the recovery position without suctioning
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be performed to clear blood from the airway, but each suctioning
attempt should be limited to 15 seconds to prevent hypoxia. This clears the airway while
minimizing the risk of oxygen desaturation.
,3
PATIENT ASSESSMENT - MEDICAL
Q6: During your primary assessment of a 67-year-old female with chest pain, you note she is
alert, has a patent airway, and respirations of 22 with adequate depth. Her radial pulse is present
at 88 bpm. Her skin is cool and diaphoretic. What is her priority status?
A. High priority (unstable). [CORRECT]
B. Low priority (stable)
C. Priority cannot be determined
D. Deceased
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Despite normal vital signs, this patient exhibits signs of poor perfusion (cool,
diaphoretic skin) consistent with cardiogenic shock. The presence of chest pain with signs of
shock makes this a high-priority (unstable) patient requiring immediate transport.
Q7: You are assessing a diabetic patient who is confused and combative. Their blood glucose
reads 42 mg/dL. After ensuring airway patency, what is your next appropriate intervention?
A. Start an IV and administer 25g D50
B. Administer oral glucose if the patient can swallow. [CORRECT]
C. Administer glucagon 1mg IM immediately
D. Transport immediately without intervention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a conscious patient with hypoglycemia who can protect their airway and swallow,
oral glucose is the preferred first-line treatment. It is faster acting than glucagon and less invasive
than IV dextrose.
Q8: A 52-year-old male presents with "tearing" chest pain radiating to his back. His blood
pressure is 180/110 mmHg in the right arm and 140/90 mmHg in the left arm. What condition
should you suspect?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection. [CORRECT]
D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The combination of tearing chest pain radiating to the back and a blood pressure
differential between arms (>20 mmHg systolic) is highly suggestive of aortic dissection. This is a
time-critical emergency requiring rapid transport.
, 4
Q9: During your secondary assessment of a patient with abdominal pain, you note rebound
tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. These findings suggest:
A. Gastritis
B. Appendicitis. [CORRECT]
C. Cholecystitis
D. Pancreatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rebound tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant (McBurney's point) are
classic signs of appendicitis. The peritoneal signs indicate inflammation of the peritoneum,
suggesting possible perforation.
Q10: A patient with a history of COPD presents with respiratory distress. Their SpO2 is 84% on
room air. What is your appropriate oxygen titration goal?
A. 94-98%
B. 88-92%. [CORRECT]
C. 100%
D. Maintain at 84%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients with COPD who retain CO2 should receive titrated oxygen to maintain SpO2
between 88-92%. Higher oxygen levels can suppress the hypoxic drive, leading to respiratory
depression and CO2 retention.
PATIENT ASSESSMENT - TRAUMA
Q11: You are called to a motorcycle crash. The rider is lying 30 feet from the bike, unconscious,
with obvious deformity to the right thigh. There is a pool of blood under the leg. What is your
first action after scene safety?
A. Apply traction splint to the leg
B. Manual stabilization of the head and neck. [CORRECT]
C. Apply direct pressure to bleeding
D. Check distal pulses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For any trauma patient with mechanism for spinal injury, the first priority after scene
