RELIAS MEDICAL SURGICAL TELEMETRY LATEST EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS | NEWEST EXAM | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS (JUST RELEASED)
Question 1
A patient presents with a heart rate of 45 bpm and is experiencing dizziness. What is the most
appropriate initial nursing intervention?
A) Prepare for immediate cardioversion
B) Administer a 500 mL bolus of Normal Saline
C) Assess the patient's blood pressure
D) Notify the Rapid Response Team
E) Administer 1 mg of Epinephrine IV push
Correct Answer: C) Assess the patient's blood pressure
Rationale: Assessing blood pressure and overall hemodynamic status is the first step in
determining the severity of bradycardia. Dizziness indicates potential poor perfusion, but
clinical decisions must be based on a complete set of vital signs to determine if the patient is
stable or unstable according to ACLS protocols.
Question 2
When monitoring a patient's telemetry, what does a QRS complex measuring 0.14 seconds
typically indicate?
A) A normal conduction through the ventricles
B) Atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response
C) A bundle branch block or ventricular rhythm
D) A first-degree AV block
E) A premature atrial contraction
Correct Answer: C) A bundle branch block or ventricular rhythm
Rationale: A normal QRS complex is less than 0.12 seconds. A wide QRS (>0.12s) indicates
that the electrical impulse is taking longer to travel through the ventricles, often due to a
blockage in the bundle branches or because the rhythm is originating from the ventricles
rather than the SA node.
Question 3
Which of the following is a common complication associated with telemetry monitoring that a
nurse should proactively assess for?
A) Development of hospital-acquired pneumonia
B) Skin irritation from electrode placement
C) Sudden onset of deep vein thrombosis
D) Increased risk of urinary tract infections
E) Electrolyte imbalances due to electrode gel
Correct Answer: B) Skin irritation from electrode placement
Rationale: Skin irritation or breakdown is a frequent complication of telemetry due to the
, 2
adhesive on the electrodes and the conductive gel. Nurses should rotate electrode sites and
assess skin integrity during every shift to prevent dermatitis or skin tears.
Question 4
A telemetry technician notices that a patient's heart rate suddenly increases from 70 bpm to 150
bpm with a narrow QRS and no visible P waves. What should be the technician's first action?
A) Print a rhythm strip for the chart
B) Call the physician for an order of Adenosine
C) Notify the nurse immediately
D) Perform a carotid massage on the patient
E) Check the patient's oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: C) Notify the nurse immediately
Rationale: While the technician is responsible for monitoring, they do not have the scope to
assess the patient physically. Immediate notification of the nurse allows for a rapid bedside
assessment to determine the patient’s stability and identify the specific supraventricular
tachycardia (SVT) rhythm.
Question 5
In telemetry monitoring, what does a significant ST segment elevation in two or more contiguous
leads typically indicate?
A) Myocardial ischemia
B) Myocardial infarction/injury
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Pericardial effusion
E) Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: B) Myocardial infarction/injury
Rationale: ST-segment elevation (STEMI) indicates acute myocardial injury or infarction
where the heart muscle is currently being damaged. This is a medical emergency requiring
immediate intervention to restore blood flow to the affected heart muscle.
Question 6
A patient is being monitored for potential arrhythmias. Which finding would most likely indicate
a need for immediate intervention via the ACLS tachycardia algorithm?
A) Sinus tachycardia at 105 bpm
B) Sustained Ventricular tachycardia
C) Occasional Premature Atrial Contractions (PACs)
D) Atrial Fibrillation with a heart rate of 88 bpm
E) First-degree AV block
Correct Answer: B) Ventricular tachycardia
Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a life-threatening rhythm that can quickly
degrade into ventricular fibrillation or result in pulselessness. Immediate intervention, such
, 3
as amiodarone or cardioversion/defibrillation, is required depending on the patient's pulse
and stability.
Question 7
What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath, palpitations, and a
tachycardic rhythm on the monitor?
A) Supine with legs elevated
B) Left lateral recumbent
C) High Fowler's position
D) Prone position
E) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: C) High Fowler's position
Rationale: High Fowler's position (sitting up at 60-90 degrees) maximizes lung expansion
and eases the workload of the heart. It is the priority position for patients in respiratory or
cardiac distress to improve oxygenation.
Question 8
If a telemetry monitor displays an abrupt flat line (asystole), what should the nurse do first?
A) Begin chest compressions immediately
B) Check the patient's leads and connections
C) Administer 1 mg of Atropine
D) Call a Code Blue
E) Check the patient for a pulse
Correct Answer: B) Check the patient's leads and connections
Rationale: In the clinical setting, the most common cause of a "flat line" on a monitor is a
disconnected lead or a failed electrode (lead-off). The nurse should look at the patient and
check the equipment first. If the patient is unresponsive, then the nurse immediately checks
a pulse and starts CPR.
Question 9
A patient has a history of permanent atrial fibrillation. Which medication is commonly
prescribed to prevent the most common life-altering complication of this rhythm?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Digoxin
C) Anticoagulants
D) Calcium channel blockers
E) Loop diuretics
Correct Answer: C) Anticoagulants
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation causes blood to pool in the atria, significantly increasing the
risk of clot formation (thromboembolism). Anticoagulants (like Warfarin or Apixaban) are
ANSWERS | NEWEST EXAM | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS (JUST RELEASED)
Question 1
A patient presents with a heart rate of 45 bpm and is experiencing dizziness. What is the most
appropriate initial nursing intervention?
A) Prepare for immediate cardioversion
B) Administer a 500 mL bolus of Normal Saline
C) Assess the patient's blood pressure
D) Notify the Rapid Response Team
E) Administer 1 mg of Epinephrine IV push
Correct Answer: C) Assess the patient's blood pressure
Rationale: Assessing blood pressure and overall hemodynamic status is the first step in
determining the severity of bradycardia. Dizziness indicates potential poor perfusion, but
clinical decisions must be based on a complete set of vital signs to determine if the patient is
stable or unstable according to ACLS protocols.
Question 2
When monitoring a patient's telemetry, what does a QRS complex measuring 0.14 seconds
typically indicate?
A) A normal conduction through the ventricles
B) Atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response
C) A bundle branch block or ventricular rhythm
D) A first-degree AV block
E) A premature atrial contraction
Correct Answer: C) A bundle branch block or ventricular rhythm
Rationale: A normal QRS complex is less than 0.12 seconds. A wide QRS (>0.12s) indicates
that the electrical impulse is taking longer to travel through the ventricles, often due to a
blockage in the bundle branches or because the rhythm is originating from the ventricles
rather than the SA node.
Question 3
Which of the following is a common complication associated with telemetry monitoring that a
nurse should proactively assess for?
A) Development of hospital-acquired pneumonia
B) Skin irritation from electrode placement
C) Sudden onset of deep vein thrombosis
D) Increased risk of urinary tract infections
E) Electrolyte imbalances due to electrode gel
Correct Answer: B) Skin irritation from electrode placement
Rationale: Skin irritation or breakdown is a frequent complication of telemetry due to the
, 2
adhesive on the electrodes and the conductive gel. Nurses should rotate electrode sites and
assess skin integrity during every shift to prevent dermatitis or skin tears.
Question 4
A telemetry technician notices that a patient's heart rate suddenly increases from 70 bpm to 150
bpm with a narrow QRS and no visible P waves. What should be the technician's first action?
A) Print a rhythm strip for the chart
B) Call the physician for an order of Adenosine
C) Notify the nurse immediately
D) Perform a carotid massage on the patient
E) Check the patient's oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: C) Notify the nurse immediately
Rationale: While the technician is responsible for monitoring, they do not have the scope to
assess the patient physically. Immediate notification of the nurse allows for a rapid bedside
assessment to determine the patient’s stability and identify the specific supraventricular
tachycardia (SVT) rhythm.
Question 5
In telemetry monitoring, what does a significant ST segment elevation in two or more contiguous
leads typically indicate?
A) Myocardial ischemia
B) Myocardial infarction/injury
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Pericardial effusion
E) Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: B) Myocardial infarction/injury
Rationale: ST-segment elevation (STEMI) indicates acute myocardial injury or infarction
where the heart muscle is currently being damaged. This is a medical emergency requiring
immediate intervention to restore blood flow to the affected heart muscle.
Question 6
A patient is being monitored for potential arrhythmias. Which finding would most likely indicate
a need for immediate intervention via the ACLS tachycardia algorithm?
A) Sinus tachycardia at 105 bpm
B) Sustained Ventricular tachycardia
C) Occasional Premature Atrial Contractions (PACs)
D) Atrial Fibrillation with a heart rate of 88 bpm
E) First-degree AV block
Correct Answer: B) Ventricular tachycardia
Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a life-threatening rhythm that can quickly
degrade into ventricular fibrillation or result in pulselessness. Immediate intervention, such
, 3
as amiodarone or cardioversion/defibrillation, is required depending on the patient's pulse
and stability.
Question 7
What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath, palpitations, and a
tachycardic rhythm on the monitor?
A) Supine with legs elevated
B) Left lateral recumbent
C) High Fowler's position
D) Prone position
E) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: C) High Fowler's position
Rationale: High Fowler's position (sitting up at 60-90 degrees) maximizes lung expansion
and eases the workload of the heart. It is the priority position for patients in respiratory or
cardiac distress to improve oxygenation.
Question 8
If a telemetry monitor displays an abrupt flat line (asystole), what should the nurse do first?
A) Begin chest compressions immediately
B) Check the patient's leads and connections
C) Administer 1 mg of Atropine
D) Call a Code Blue
E) Check the patient for a pulse
Correct Answer: B) Check the patient's leads and connections
Rationale: In the clinical setting, the most common cause of a "flat line" on a monitor is a
disconnected lead or a failed electrode (lead-off). The nurse should look at the patient and
check the equipment first. If the patient is unresponsive, then the nurse immediately checks
a pulse and starts CPR.
Question 9
A patient has a history of permanent atrial fibrillation. Which medication is commonly
prescribed to prevent the most common life-altering complication of this rhythm?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Digoxin
C) Anticoagulants
D) Calcium channel blockers
E) Loop diuretics
Correct Answer: C) Anticoagulants
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation causes blood to pool in the atria, significantly increasing the
risk of clot formation (thromboembolism). Anticoagulants (like Warfarin or Apixaban) are
