NUR202 EXAM 2 Actual Exam 2026/2027
Complete Questions and Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales Maternal Newborn
Nursing 100% Correct Grade A Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A 28-week pregnant client presents to the clinic with complaints of a persistent headache,
blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 158/96 mmHg, and urine dipstick
reveals 2+ protein. Which order should the nurse anticipate from the healthcare provider FIRST?
• A. Administer labetalol 20 mg IV push
• B. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein
• C. Prepare the client for immediate cesarean section
• D. Administer magnesium sulfate IV loading dose [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D Rationale: The client's symptoms (headache, blurred vision, epigastric
pain) along with elevated BP and proteinuria indicate severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is
the priority intervention for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia to prevent eclampsia (D).
While antihypertensives (A) may be needed, seizure prevention takes priority. A 24-hour urine
(B) confirms diagnosis but does not address immediate safety. Cesarean section (C) is not
indicated without additional factors.
Q2: A client at 24 weeks gestation with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 32 is being counseled about
weight gain during pregnancy. What is the recommended total weight gain for this client?
• A. 28-40 pounds
• B. 25-35 pounds
• C. 15-25 pounds [CORRECT]
• D. 11-20 pounds
,Correct Answer: C Rationale: For overweight clients (BMI 25-29.9), the recommended weight
gain is 15-25 pounds (C). Underweight clients (BMI <18.5) should gain 28-40 pounds (A).
Normal weight clients (BMI 18.5-24.9) should gain 25-35 pounds (B). Obese clients (BMI ≥30)
should gain 11-20 pounds (D).
Q3: A client at 18 weeks gestation asks when she should expect to feel fetal movement. The
nurse's best response is:
• A. "You should have felt movement by 12 weeks."
• B. "Most women feel movement between 18-20 weeks, earlier if multiparous."
[CORRECT]
• C. "Fetal movement is not felt until the third trimester."
• D. "Movement is only felt with ultrasound visualization."
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Quickening (maternal perception of fetal movement) typically
occurs between 18-20 weeks for primigravidas and may be felt earlier (16-18 weeks) in
multiparous women (B). First-time mothers often mistake early flutters for gas. Movement
before 12 weeks (A) is impossible. Third trimester (C) is too late. Ultrasound (D) visualizes but
does not create sensation.
Q4: A client with gestational diabetes at 32 weeks asks about fetal surveillance. Which test is
typically performed to assess fetal well-being in gestational diabetes?
• A. Amniocentesis every week
• B. Nonstress test (NST) starting at 32 weeks [CORRECT]
• C. Chorionic villus sampling
• D. No additional testing is needed
Correct Answer: B Rationale: NSTs are typically initiated at 32-34 weeks for insulin-requiring
gestational diabetes and at 40 weeks for diet-controlled GDM to assess fetal well-being and
detect placental insufficiency (B). Amniocentesis (A) is not routine. CVS (C) is first-trimester
genetic testing. Testing is definitely needed (D).
Q5: A Rh-negative client at 28 weeks gestation asks about RhoGAM. The nurse's best
explanation is:
, • A. "RhoGAM prevents you from developing antibodies against Rh-positive blood."
[CORRECT]
• B. "RhoGAM will change your blood type to Rh-positive."
• C. "RhoGAM is only given after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive."
• D. "RhoGAM is not necessary in this pregnancy."
Correct Answer: A Rationale: RhoGAM (anti-D immunoglobulin) prevents Rh sensitization by
suppressing the maternal immune response to Rh-positive fetal blood cells that may cross the
placenta (A). It does not change blood type (B). It is given at 28 weeks antepartum and
postpartum if the infant is Rh-positive (C is incomplete). It is necessary in every pregnancy for
Rh-negative women (D).
Q6: A client at 10 weeks gestation reports severe nausea and vomiting, has lost 8 pounds, and
shows signs of dehydration. The nurse recognizes this as:
• A. Normal morning sickness
• B. Hyperemesis gravidarum requiring medical intervention [CORRECT]
• C. Food poisoning unrelated to pregnancy
• D. Gestational diabetes
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea/vomiting causing
weight loss (>5% pre-pregnancy weight), dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and ketosis,
requiring IV fluids, antiemetics, and possible hospitalization (B). Normal morning sickness (A)
does not cause significant weight loss or dehydration. Food poisoning (C) is acute and self-
limited. Gestational diabetes (D) does not present with vomiting.
Q7: A client at 35 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. The nurse performs a
nonstress test (NST) which shows no accelerations in 40 minutes. What is the next appropriate
action?
• A. Send the client home with reassurance
• B. Perform a contraction stress test (CST) or biophysical profile (BPP) [CORRECT]
• C. Schedule induction for the following week
• D. Discontinue all fetal surveillance
Complete Questions and Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales Maternal Newborn
Nursing 100% Correct Grade A Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A 28-week pregnant client presents to the clinic with complaints of a persistent headache,
blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 158/96 mmHg, and urine dipstick
reveals 2+ protein. Which order should the nurse anticipate from the healthcare provider FIRST?
• A. Administer labetalol 20 mg IV push
• B. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein
• C. Prepare the client for immediate cesarean section
• D. Administer magnesium sulfate IV loading dose [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D Rationale: The client's symptoms (headache, blurred vision, epigastric
pain) along with elevated BP and proteinuria indicate severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is
the priority intervention for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia to prevent eclampsia (D).
While antihypertensives (A) may be needed, seizure prevention takes priority. A 24-hour urine
(B) confirms diagnosis but does not address immediate safety. Cesarean section (C) is not
indicated without additional factors.
Q2: A client at 24 weeks gestation with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 32 is being counseled about
weight gain during pregnancy. What is the recommended total weight gain for this client?
• A. 28-40 pounds
• B. 25-35 pounds
• C. 15-25 pounds [CORRECT]
• D. 11-20 pounds
,Correct Answer: C Rationale: For overweight clients (BMI 25-29.9), the recommended weight
gain is 15-25 pounds (C). Underweight clients (BMI <18.5) should gain 28-40 pounds (A).
Normal weight clients (BMI 18.5-24.9) should gain 25-35 pounds (B). Obese clients (BMI ≥30)
should gain 11-20 pounds (D).
Q3: A client at 18 weeks gestation asks when she should expect to feel fetal movement. The
nurse's best response is:
• A. "You should have felt movement by 12 weeks."
• B. "Most women feel movement between 18-20 weeks, earlier if multiparous."
[CORRECT]
• C. "Fetal movement is not felt until the third trimester."
• D. "Movement is only felt with ultrasound visualization."
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Quickening (maternal perception of fetal movement) typically
occurs between 18-20 weeks for primigravidas and may be felt earlier (16-18 weeks) in
multiparous women (B). First-time mothers often mistake early flutters for gas. Movement
before 12 weeks (A) is impossible. Third trimester (C) is too late. Ultrasound (D) visualizes but
does not create sensation.
Q4: A client with gestational diabetes at 32 weeks asks about fetal surveillance. Which test is
typically performed to assess fetal well-being in gestational diabetes?
• A. Amniocentesis every week
• B. Nonstress test (NST) starting at 32 weeks [CORRECT]
• C. Chorionic villus sampling
• D. No additional testing is needed
Correct Answer: B Rationale: NSTs are typically initiated at 32-34 weeks for insulin-requiring
gestational diabetes and at 40 weeks for diet-controlled GDM to assess fetal well-being and
detect placental insufficiency (B). Amniocentesis (A) is not routine. CVS (C) is first-trimester
genetic testing. Testing is definitely needed (D).
Q5: A Rh-negative client at 28 weeks gestation asks about RhoGAM. The nurse's best
explanation is:
, • A. "RhoGAM prevents you from developing antibodies against Rh-positive blood."
[CORRECT]
• B. "RhoGAM will change your blood type to Rh-positive."
• C. "RhoGAM is only given after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive."
• D. "RhoGAM is not necessary in this pregnancy."
Correct Answer: A Rationale: RhoGAM (anti-D immunoglobulin) prevents Rh sensitization by
suppressing the maternal immune response to Rh-positive fetal blood cells that may cross the
placenta (A). It does not change blood type (B). It is given at 28 weeks antepartum and
postpartum if the infant is Rh-positive (C is incomplete). It is necessary in every pregnancy for
Rh-negative women (D).
Q6: A client at 10 weeks gestation reports severe nausea and vomiting, has lost 8 pounds, and
shows signs of dehydration. The nurse recognizes this as:
• A. Normal morning sickness
• B. Hyperemesis gravidarum requiring medical intervention [CORRECT]
• C. Food poisoning unrelated to pregnancy
• D. Gestational diabetes
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea/vomiting causing
weight loss (>5% pre-pregnancy weight), dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and ketosis,
requiring IV fluids, antiemetics, and possible hospitalization (B). Normal morning sickness (A)
does not cause significant weight loss or dehydration. Food poisoning (C) is acute and self-
limited. Gestational diabetes (D) does not present with vomiting.
Q7: A client at 35 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. The nurse performs a
nonstress test (NST) which shows no accelerations in 40 minutes. What is the next appropriate
action?
• A. Send the client home with reassurance
• B. Perform a contraction stress test (CST) or biophysical profile (BPP) [CORRECT]
• C. Schedule induction for the following week
• D. Discontinue all fetal surveillance
