NUR202 EXAM 2 Actual Exam 2026/2027
Complete Questions and Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales Maternal Newborn
Nursing 100% Correct Grade A Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A 28-week pregnant client presents to the clinic with complaints of a persistent headache,
blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 158/96 mmHg, and urine dipstick
reveals 2+ protein. Which order should the nurse anticipate from the healthcare provider FIRST?
• A. Administer labetalol 20 mg IV push
• B. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein
• C. Prepare the client for immediate cesarean section
• D. Administer magnesium sulfate IV loading dose [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms (headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain) along with elevated
BP and proteinuria indicate severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is the priority intervention
for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia to prevent eclampsia (D). While antihypertensives
(A) may be needed, seizure prevention takes priority. A 24-hour urine (B) confirms diagnosis but
does not address immediate safety. Cesarean section (C) is not indicated without additional
factors.
Q2: A client at 10 weeks gestation asks about recommended weight gain during pregnancy. Her
pre-pregnancy BMI was 22 (normal weight). Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
• A. "You should gain 11-20 pounds total during your pregnancy."
• B. "You should gain 25-35 pounds total during your pregnancy." [CORRECT]
• C. "You should gain 40-50 pounds total during your pregnancy."
• D. "Weight gain is not important as long as you eat healthy foods."
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For normal BMI (18.5-24.9), recommended weight gain is 25-35 pounds (B).
Underweight women should gain 28-40 pounds (A is wrong). Overweight women should gain
15-25 pounds. Obese women should gain 11-20 pounds. Weight gain is important for fetal
development (D is wrong).
Q3: A pregnant client at 18 weeks gestation is scheduled for a routine prenatal visit. Which
assessment finding would require immediate follow-up?
• A. Fundal height at the level of the umbilicus
• B. Fetal heart rate of 150 bpm
• C. Blood pressure of 142/90 mmHg [CORRECT]
• D. Weight gain of 3 pounds since last visit
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks (or before 20 weeks with proteinuria)
indicates gestational hypertension or preeclampsia (C) and requires immediate evaluation.
Fundal height at umbilicus (A) is appropriate for 18-20 weeks. FHR 150 bpm (B) is normal (110-
160 bpm). Weight gain (D) is appropriate.
Q4: A client with gestational diabetes at 32 weeks reports fasting blood glucose of 95 mg/dL and
2-hour postprandial of 145 mg/dL. Which interpretation by the nurse is most accurate?
• A. These values indicate excellent glycemic control
• B. The fasting value is elevated; target is <90 mg/dL [CORRECT]
• C. The postprandial value is dangerously low
• D. No further monitoring is needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Targets for gestational diabetes are fasting <90 mg/dL, 1-hour postprandial <140
mg/dL, or 2-hour postprandial <120 mg/dL. This client's fasting of 95 mg/dL is above target (B),
indicating need for intervention (diet modification, medication adjustment). Postprandial 145
mg/dL is also above the 2-hour target of <120 mg/dL.
,Q5: A Rh-negative client at 28 weeks gestation asks about RhoGAM. Which explanation by the
nurse is most accurate?
• A. "You only need RhoGAM if you have a positive antibody screen."
• B. "You will receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after delivery if the baby
is Rh-positive." [CORRECT]
• C. "RhoGAM is no longer recommended in pregnancy."
• D. "RhoGAM prevents you from developing diabetes during pregnancy."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard protocol is RhoGAM at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum if the
infant is Rh-positive (B), plus after any sensitizing event (amniocentesis, trauma, bleeding). It
prevents maternal antibody formation against Rh-positive fetal blood. It is still standard care (C
is wrong) and unrelated to diabetes (D is wrong).
Q6: A client at 8 weeks gestation reports severe nausea and vomiting, unable to keep any food or
fluids down for 24 hours, and has lost 5 pounds. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
• A. Normal morning sickness
• B. Hyperemesis gravidarum [CORRECT]
• C. Gestational trophoblastic disease
• D. Appendicitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum (B) is severe nausea/vomiting with weight loss (>5% pre-
pregnancy weight), dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Normal morning sickness (A) doesn't
cause significant weight loss or dehydration. While trophoblastic disease (C) can cause severe
nausea, it's less common. Appendicitis (D) presents differently.
Q7: A pregnant client at 35 weeks reports decreased fetal movement. Which intervention should
the nurse implement first?
• A. Immediately schedule a cesarean section
• B. Perform a nonstress test (NST) to assess fetal well-being [CORRECT]
• C. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal at this gestation
, • D. Send the client home with instructions to count kicks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement requires immediate assessment with NST (B) to evaluate
fetal status. Reassurance (C) or sending home (D) could miss fetal compromise. Immediate
cesarean (A) is premature without assessment.
Q8: A client with pregestational diabetes is planning pregnancy. Which preconception
counseling is most important?
• A. "You should stop all diabetes medications before conception."
• B. "Achieving optimal glucose control before conception reduces risk of congenital
anomalies." [CORRECT]
• C. "Diabetes does not affect pregnancy outcomes."
• D. "You should wait until HbA1c is >10% to conceive."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Preconception glucose control (HbA1c <6.5-7%) significantly reduces risk of
congenital heart defects, neural tube defects, and other anomalies (B). Some medications need
changing (not all stopped, A is wrong). Diabetes significantly affects outcomes (C is wrong).
High HbA1c (D) increases risks.
Q9: A client at 24 weeks gestation is diagnosed with placenta previa after painless vaginal
bleeding. Which instruction is most important?
• A. "You may continue your regular exercise routine."
• B. "Pelvic rest (no intercourse or tampons) and report any bleeding immediately."
[CORRECT]
• C. "Schedule a vaginal delivery at term."
• D. "The bleeding indicates placental abruption."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa requires pelvic rest (no intercourse, tampons, or digital exams) to
prevent bleeding, and immediate reporting of bleeding (B). Exercise (A) and vaginal delivery (C)
are contraindicated. Painless bleeding indicates previa; painful bleeding suggests abruption (D).
Complete Questions and Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales Maternal Newborn
Nursing 100% Correct Grade A Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A 28-week pregnant client presents to the clinic with complaints of a persistent headache,
blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 158/96 mmHg, and urine dipstick
reveals 2+ protein. Which order should the nurse anticipate from the healthcare provider FIRST?
• A. Administer labetalol 20 mg IV push
• B. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein
• C. Prepare the client for immediate cesarean section
• D. Administer magnesium sulfate IV loading dose [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms (headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain) along with elevated
BP and proteinuria indicate severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is the priority intervention
for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia to prevent eclampsia (D). While antihypertensives
(A) may be needed, seizure prevention takes priority. A 24-hour urine (B) confirms diagnosis but
does not address immediate safety. Cesarean section (C) is not indicated without additional
factors.
Q2: A client at 10 weeks gestation asks about recommended weight gain during pregnancy. Her
pre-pregnancy BMI was 22 (normal weight). Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
• A. "You should gain 11-20 pounds total during your pregnancy."
• B. "You should gain 25-35 pounds total during your pregnancy." [CORRECT]
• C. "You should gain 40-50 pounds total during your pregnancy."
• D. "Weight gain is not important as long as you eat healthy foods."
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For normal BMI (18.5-24.9), recommended weight gain is 25-35 pounds (B).
Underweight women should gain 28-40 pounds (A is wrong). Overweight women should gain
15-25 pounds. Obese women should gain 11-20 pounds. Weight gain is important for fetal
development (D is wrong).
Q3: A pregnant client at 18 weeks gestation is scheduled for a routine prenatal visit. Which
assessment finding would require immediate follow-up?
• A. Fundal height at the level of the umbilicus
• B. Fetal heart rate of 150 bpm
• C. Blood pressure of 142/90 mmHg [CORRECT]
• D. Weight gain of 3 pounds since last visit
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks (or before 20 weeks with proteinuria)
indicates gestational hypertension or preeclampsia (C) and requires immediate evaluation.
Fundal height at umbilicus (A) is appropriate for 18-20 weeks. FHR 150 bpm (B) is normal (110-
160 bpm). Weight gain (D) is appropriate.
Q4: A client with gestational diabetes at 32 weeks reports fasting blood glucose of 95 mg/dL and
2-hour postprandial of 145 mg/dL. Which interpretation by the nurse is most accurate?
• A. These values indicate excellent glycemic control
• B. The fasting value is elevated; target is <90 mg/dL [CORRECT]
• C. The postprandial value is dangerously low
• D. No further monitoring is needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Targets for gestational diabetes are fasting <90 mg/dL, 1-hour postprandial <140
mg/dL, or 2-hour postprandial <120 mg/dL. This client's fasting of 95 mg/dL is above target (B),
indicating need for intervention (diet modification, medication adjustment). Postprandial 145
mg/dL is also above the 2-hour target of <120 mg/dL.
,Q5: A Rh-negative client at 28 weeks gestation asks about RhoGAM. Which explanation by the
nurse is most accurate?
• A. "You only need RhoGAM if you have a positive antibody screen."
• B. "You will receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after delivery if the baby
is Rh-positive." [CORRECT]
• C. "RhoGAM is no longer recommended in pregnancy."
• D. "RhoGAM prevents you from developing diabetes during pregnancy."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard protocol is RhoGAM at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum if the
infant is Rh-positive (B), plus after any sensitizing event (amniocentesis, trauma, bleeding). It
prevents maternal antibody formation against Rh-positive fetal blood. It is still standard care (C
is wrong) and unrelated to diabetes (D is wrong).
Q6: A client at 8 weeks gestation reports severe nausea and vomiting, unable to keep any food or
fluids down for 24 hours, and has lost 5 pounds. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
• A. Normal morning sickness
• B. Hyperemesis gravidarum [CORRECT]
• C. Gestational trophoblastic disease
• D. Appendicitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum (B) is severe nausea/vomiting with weight loss (>5% pre-
pregnancy weight), dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Normal morning sickness (A) doesn't
cause significant weight loss or dehydration. While trophoblastic disease (C) can cause severe
nausea, it's less common. Appendicitis (D) presents differently.
Q7: A pregnant client at 35 weeks reports decreased fetal movement. Which intervention should
the nurse implement first?
• A. Immediately schedule a cesarean section
• B. Perform a nonstress test (NST) to assess fetal well-being [CORRECT]
• C. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal at this gestation
, • D. Send the client home with instructions to count kicks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement requires immediate assessment with NST (B) to evaluate
fetal status. Reassurance (C) or sending home (D) could miss fetal compromise. Immediate
cesarean (A) is premature without assessment.
Q8: A client with pregestational diabetes is planning pregnancy. Which preconception
counseling is most important?
• A. "You should stop all diabetes medications before conception."
• B. "Achieving optimal glucose control before conception reduces risk of congenital
anomalies." [CORRECT]
• C. "Diabetes does not affect pregnancy outcomes."
• D. "You should wait until HbA1c is >10% to conceive."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Preconception glucose control (HbA1c <6.5-7%) significantly reduces risk of
congenital heart defects, neural tube defects, and other anomalies (B). Some medications need
changing (not all stopped, A is wrong). Diabetes significantly affects outcomes (C is wrong).
High HbA1c (D) increases risks.
Q9: A client at 24 weeks gestation is diagnosed with placenta previa after painless vaginal
bleeding. Which instruction is most important?
• A. "You may continue your regular exercise routine."
• B. "Pelvic rest (no intercourse or tampons) and report any bleeding immediately."
[CORRECT]
• C. "Schedule a vaginal delivery at term."
• D. "The bleeding indicates placental abruption."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa requires pelvic rest (no intercourse, tampons, or digital exams) to
prevent bleeding, and immediate reporting of bleeding (B). Exercise (A) and vaginal delivery (C)
are contraindicated. Painless bleeding indicates previa; painful bleeding suggests abruption (D).
