NUR202 EXAM 2 Actual Exam 2026/2027
Complete Questions and Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales Maternal Newborn
Nursing 100% Correct Grade A Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A 28-week pregnant client presents to the clinic with complaints of a persistent headache,
blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 158/96 mmHg, and urine dipstick
reveals 2+ protein. Which order should the nurse anticipate from the healthcare provider FIRST?
A. Administer labetalol 20 mg IV push B. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein C.
Prepare the client for immediate cesarean section D. Administer magnesium sulfate IV loading
dose. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms (headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain) along with elevated
BP and proteinuria indicate severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is the priority intervention
for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia to prevent eclampsia (D). While antihypertensives
(A) may be needed, seizure prevention takes priority. A 24-hour urine (B) confirms diagnosis but
does not address immediate safety. Cesarean section (C) is not indicated without additional
factors.
Q2: A client at 16 weeks gestation asks the nurse about recommended weight gain during
pregnancy. The client has a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22. Which response by the nurse is most
accurate?
A. "You should aim to gain 15-25 pounds throughout your pregnancy." B. "You should aim to
gain 25-35 pounds throughout your pregnancy." [CORRECT] C. "You should aim to gain 28-40
pounds throughout your pregnancy." D. "Weight gain is not important as long as you eat healthy
foods."
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: For a normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5-24.9), the recommended total weight gain is
25-35 pounds (B). Underweight clients (BMI <18.5) should gain 28-40 pounds (C). Overweight
clients (BMI 25-29.9) should gain 15-25 pounds (A). Adequate weight gain is essential for fetal
growth and maternal health (D is incorrect).
Q3: A client at 24 weeks gestation is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. Which
procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?
A. Fasting blood glucose measurement only B. 50-gram, 1-hour glucose challenge test
[CORRECT] C. 100-gram, 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test D. Hemoglobin A1C measurement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Universal screening for gestational diabetes occurs at 24-28 weeks using the 50-
gram, 1-hour glucose challenge test (B). If results are abnormal (>130-140 mg/dL), the 100-
gram, 3-hour OGTT (C) is used for diagnosis. Fasting glucose (A) and HbA1c (D) are not used
for routine screening.
Q4: A Rh-negative client delivers a Rh-positive infant. Which intervention is essential within 72
hours postpartum?
A. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM [CORRECT] B. Type and crossmatch for blood
transfusion C. Administer vitamin K to the infant D. Perform a Kleihauer-Betke test only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM (Rh immune globulin) 300 mcg IM must be administered within 72 hours
postpartum to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers with Rh-positive infants (A).
While Kleihauer-Betke (D) may be performed to assess fetal-maternal hemorrhage, RhoGAM
administration is the priority intervention. Blood transfusion (B) and infant vitamin K (C) are
unrelated to Rh incompatibility.
Q5: A client at 32 weeks gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding after intercourse. Ultrasound
reveals placenta previa. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Prepare the client for immediate vaginal delivery B. Perform a vaginal examination to assess
cervical dilation C. Monitor fetal heart rate and prepare for possible cesarean birth [CORRECT]
D. Administer oxytocin to augment labor
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: Placenta previa (placenta covering the internal os) presents with painless bleeding
and requires cesarean delivery. The priority is continuous fetal monitoring and preparation for
cesarean birth if bleeding is significant (C). Vaginal delivery (A) and vaginal examination (B) are
contraindicated due to risk of severe hemorrhage. Oxytocin (D) is inappropriate.
Q6: A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is admitted with weight loss of 5 pounds, ketonuria,
and electrolyte imbalances. Which intervention is the priority?
A. Administer antiemetics and advance diet as tolerated B. Initiate IV fluid replacement with
dextrose and thiamine [CORRECT] C. Prepare for immediate termination of pregnancy D.
Encourage small, frequent meals of dry crackers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and
Wernicke encephalopathy. Priority is IV fluid resuscitation with dextrose and thiamine before
dextrose to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy (B). Antiemetics (A) and dietary modifications (D)
are appropriate but secondary to fluid resuscitation. Termination (C) is rarely indicated.
Q7: A client at 18 weeks gestation asks when she should feel fetal movement. Which response
by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "You should have already felt movement by now." B. "Most women feel movement between
18-20 weeks, earlier if you've been pregnant before." [CORRECT] C. "Fetal movement is not
felt until the third trimester." D. "You will never feel fetal movement with an anterior placenta."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening (maternal perception of fetal movement) typically occurs between 18-20
weeks for primigravidas and 16-18 weeks for multigravidas (B). Not feeling movement at 18
weeks (A) is normal. Third trimester (C) is incorrect. Anterior placenta may delay but does not
prevent feeling movement (D).
Q8: A client at 35 weeks gestation with preterm labor is prescribed betamethasone. The nurse
understands this medication is given to:
A. Stop uterine contractions B. Promote fetal lung maturity [CORRECT] C. Prevent neonatal
infection D. Treat maternal hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Complete Questions and Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales Maternal Newborn
Nursing 100% Correct Grade A Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A 28-week pregnant client presents to the clinic with complaints of a persistent headache,
blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 158/96 mmHg, and urine dipstick
reveals 2+ protein. Which order should the nurse anticipate from the healthcare provider FIRST?
A. Administer labetalol 20 mg IV push B. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein C.
Prepare the client for immediate cesarean section D. Administer magnesium sulfate IV loading
dose. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms (headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain) along with elevated
BP and proteinuria indicate severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is the priority intervention
for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia to prevent eclampsia (D). While antihypertensives
(A) may be needed, seizure prevention takes priority. A 24-hour urine (B) confirms diagnosis but
does not address immediate safety. Cesarean section (C) is not indicated without additional
factors.
Q2: A client at 16 weeks gestation asks the nurse about recommended weight gain during
pregnancy. The client has a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22. Which response by the nurse is most
accurate?
A. "You should aim to gain 15-25 pounds throughout your pregnancy." B. "You should aim to
gain 25-35 pounds throughout your pregnancy." [CORRECT] C. "You should aim to gain 28-40
pounds throughout your pregnancy." D. "Weight gain is not important as long as you eat healthy
foods."
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: For a normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5-24.9), the recommended total weight gain is
25-35 pounds (B). Underweight clients (BMI <18.5) should gain 28-40 pounds (C). Overweight
clients (BMI 25-29.9) should gain 15-25 pounds (A). Adequate weight gain is essential for fetal
growth and maternal health (D is incorrect).
Q3: A client at 24 weeks gestation is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. Which
procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?
A. Fasting blood glucose measurement only B. 50-gram, 1-hour glucose challenge test
[CORRECT] C. 100-gram, 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test D. Hemoglobin A1C measurement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Universal screening for gestational diabetes occurs at 24-28 weeks using the 50-
gram, 1-hour glucose challenge test (B). If results are abnormal (>130-140 mg/dL), the 100-
gram, 3-hour OGTT (C) is used for diagnosis. Fasting glucose (A) and HbA1c (D) are not used
for routine screening.
Q4: A Rh-negative client delivers a Rh-positive infant. Which intervention is essential within 72
hours postpartum?
A. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM [CORRECT] B. Type and crossmatch for blood
transfusion C. Administer vitamin K to the infant D. Perform a Kleihauer-Betke test only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM (Rh immune globulin) 300 mcg IM must be administered within 72 hours
postpartum to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers with Rh-positive infants (A).
While Kleihauer-Betke (D) may be performed to assess fetal-maternal hemorrhage, RhoGAM
administration is the priority intervention. Blood transfusion (B) and infant vitamin K (C) are
unrelated to Rh incompatibility.
Q5: A client at 32 weeks gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding after intercourse. Ultrasound
reveals placenta previa. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Prepare the client for immediate vaginal delivery B. Perform a vaginal examination to assess
cervical dilation C. Monitor fetal heart rate and prepare for possible cesarean birth [CORRECT]
D. Administer oxytocin to augment labor
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: Placenta previa (placenta covering the internal os) presents with painless bleeding
and requires cesarean delivery. The priority is continuous fetal monitoring and preparation for
cesarean birth if bleeding is significant (C). Vaginal delivery (A) and vaginal examination (B) are
contraindicated due to risk of severe hemorrhage. Oxytocin (D) is inappropriate.
Q6: A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is admitted with weight loss of 5 pounds, ketonuria,
and electrolyte imbalances. Which intervention is the priority?
A. Administer antiemetics and advance diet as tolerated B. Initiate IV fluid replacement with
dextrose and thiamine [CORRECT] C. Prepare for immediate termination of pregnancy D.
Encourage small, frequent meals of dry crackers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and
Wernicke encephalopathy. Priority is IV fluid resuscitation with dextrose and thiamine before
dextrose to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy (B). Antiemetics (A) and dietary modifications (D)
are appropriate but secondary to fluid resuscitation. Termination (C) is rarely indicated.
Q7: A client at 18 weeks gestation asks when she should feel fetal movement. Which response
by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "You should have already felt movement by now." B. "Most women feel movement between
18-20 weeks, earlier if you've been pregnant before." [CORRECT] C. "Fetal movement is not
felt until the third trimester." D. "You will never feel fetal movement with an anterior placenta."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening (maternal perception of fetal movement) typically occurs between 18-20
weeks for primigravidas and 16-18 weeks for multigravidas (B). Not feeling movement at 18
weeks (A) is normal. Third trimester (C) is incorrect. Anterior placenta may delay but does not
prevent feeling movement (D).
Q8: A client at 35 weeks gestation with preterm labor is prescribed betamethasone. The nurse
understands this medication is given to:
A. Stop uterine contractions B. Promote fetal lung maturity [CORRECT] C. Prevent neonatal
infection D. Treat maternal hypertension
Correct Answer: B
