NUR202 EXAM 2 Actual Exam 2026/2027
Complete Questions and Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales Maternal Newborn
Nursing 100% Correct Grade A Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A 28-week pregnant client presents to the clinic with complaints of a persistent headache,
blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 158/96 mmHg, and urine dipstick
reveals 2+ protein. Which order should the nurse anticipate from the healthcare provider FIRST?
• A. Administer labetalol 20 mg IV push
• B. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein
• C. Prepare the client for immediate cesarean section
• D. Administer magnesium sulfate IV loading dose [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms (headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain) along with elevated
BP and proteinuria indicate severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is the priority intervention
for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia to prevent eclampsia (D). While antihypertensives
(A) may be needed, seizure prevention takes priority. A 24-hour urine (B) confirms diagnosis but
does not address immediate safety. Cesarean section (C) is not indicated without additional
factors.
Q2: A pregnant client at 24 weeks gestation asks the nurse about recommended weight gain. The
client had a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 (normal weight). Which response by the nurse is most
accurate?
• A. "You should gain 15-25 pounds throughout your pregnancy."
• B. "You should gain 25-35 pounds throughout your pregnancy." [CORRECT]
• C. "You should gain 28-40 pounds throughout your pregnancy."
, • D. "You should limit weight gain to 10-15 pounds."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For women with normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5-24.9), the Institute of Medicine
recommends total weight gain of 25-35 pounds (B). Underweight women should gain 28-40 lbs
(C), overweight women 15-25 lbs (A), and obese women 11-20 lbs. Adequate weight gain
supports fetal growth and development.
Q3: Which screening test is routinely performed between 24-28 weeks gestation to assess for
gestational diabetes?
• A. Fasting blood glucose
• B. 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test [CORRECT]
• C. 3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test
• D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test (B) is the standard screening test for
gestational diabetes performed at 24-28 weeks. No fasting is required. If results are abnormal
(>130-140 mg/dL), the diagnostic 3-hour 100g OGTT (C) is performed. Fasting glucose (A) and
A1C (D) are not standard screening tools for GDM.
Q4: A pregnant client at 32 weeks reports severe nausea and vomiting, having lost 5 pounds in
one week. She appears dehydrated with dry mucous membranes and ketonuria. Which condition
should the nurse suspect?
• A. Normal first trimester morning sickness
• B. Hyperemesis gravidarum [CORRECT]
• C. Food poisoning
• D. Viral gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum (B) is severe nausea and vomiting in pregnancy causing
weight loss (>5% of prepregnancy weight), dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and ketonuria. It
extends beyond first trimester and requires medical intervention: IV fluids, antiemetics, and
,thiamine supplementation. Morning sickness (A) does not cause significant weight loss or
dehydration.
Q5: Which finding on a nonstress test (NST) indicates a reactive, reassuring fetal status at 32
weeks gestation?
• A. Two accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds each within 20 minutes [CORRECT]
• B. One acceleration of 10 bpm lasting 10 seconds within 30 minutes
• C. No accelerations with good variability
• D. Decelerations with each contraction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A reactive NST at ≥32 weeks requires two accelerations of at least 15 bpm above
baseline, lasting at least 15 seconds each, within a 20-minute window (A). At <32 weeks, criteria
are 10 bpm × 10 seconds (B). No accelerations (C) is nonreactive. Decelerations (D) are
concerning, not reassuring.
Q6: A pregnant client at 35 weeks reports decreased fetal movement. The nurse performs a
biophysical profile (BPP). Which components are included in the BPP assessment?
• A. Fetal breathing movements, gross body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume,
and nonstress test [CORRECT]
• B. Only the nonstress test and ultrasound measurement of fetal weight
• C. Maternal blood pressure and urine protein only
• D. Doppler flow studies of the umbilical artery only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The BPP (A) includes five components: fetal breathing movements (30 seconds
sustained), gross body movements (3+ in 30 minutes), fetal tone (extension/flexion), amniotic
fluid volume (single deepest pocket ≥2 cm), and NST (reactive). Each component scores 0 or 2;
8-10 is normal, 6 is equivocal, ≤4 is abnormal.
Q7: Which instruction should the nurse provide to a pregnant client regarding listeria
prevention?
, • A. "Avoid unpasteurized dairy products and deli meats unless heated until steaming."
[CORRECT]
• B. "Increase consumption of soft cheeses like brie and feta."
• C. "Cold cuts are safe to eat without heating."
• D. "Listeria only affects the mother, not the fetus."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Listeria monocytogenes can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, and neonatal infection.
Pregnant women should avoid unpasteurized dairy, soft cheeses (unless pasteurized), and deli
meats unless heated to steaming (165°F) (A). Listeria can cross the placenta and severely affect
the fetus (D is incorrect).
Q8: A client with Rh-negative blood delivers an Rh-positive infant. When should RhoGAM be
administered postpartum?
• A. Within 72 hours of delivery [CORRECT]
• B. Within 1 week of delivery
• C. Only at the next prenatal visit
• D. Only if the mother becomes sensitized
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM (anti-D immunoglobulin) must be administered within 72 hours
postpartum (A) to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers with Rh-positive infants. It is
also given at 28 weeks gestation and after any sensitizing event (amniocentesis, trauma,
bleeding). Delayed administration reduces effectiveness.
Q9: Which finding indicates a positive contraction stress test (CST)?
• A. No late decelerations with three contractions in 10 minutes
• B. Late decelerations following 50% or more of contractions [CORRECT]
• C. Two accelerations with fetal movement
• D. Baseline variability of 6-25 bpm
Correct Answer: B
Complete Questions and Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales Maternal Newborn
Nursing 100% Correct Grade A Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A 28-week pregnant client presents to the clinic with complaints of a persistent headache,
blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 158/96 mmHg, and urine dipstick
reveals 2+ protein. Which order should the nurse anticipate from the healthcare provider FIRST?
• A. Administer labetalol 20 mg IV push
• B. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein
• C. Prepare the client for immediate cesarean section
• D. Administer magnesium sulfate IV loading dose [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms (headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain) along with elevated
BP and proteinuria indicate severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is the priority intervention
for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia to prevent eclampsia (D). While antihypertensives
(A) may be needed, seizure prevention takes priority. A 24-hour urine (B) confirms diagnosis but
does not address immediate safety. Cesarean section (C) is not indicated without additional
factors.
Q2: A pregnant client at 24 weeks gestation asks the nurse about recommended weight gain. The
client had a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 (normal weight). Which response by the nurse is most
accurate?
• A. "You should gain 15-25 pounds throughout your pregnancy."
• B. "You should gain 25-35 pounds throughout your pregnancy." [CORRECT]
• C. "You should gain 28-40 pounds throughout your pregnancy."
, • D. "You should limit weight gain to 10-15 pounds."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For women with normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5-24.9), the Institute of Medicine
recommends total weight gain of 25-35 pounds (B). Underweight women should gain 28-40 lbs
(C), overweight women 15-25 lbs (A), and obese women 11-20 lbs. Adequate weight gain
supports fetal growth and development.
Q3: Which screening test is routinely performed between 24-28 weeks gestation to assess for
gestational diabetes?
• A. Fasting blood glucose
• B. 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test [CORRECT]
• C. 3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test
• D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test (B) is the standard screening test for
gestational diabetes performed at 24-28 weeks. No fasting is required. If results are abnormal
(>130-140 mg/dL), the diagnostic 3-hour 100g OGTT (C) is performed. Fasting glucose (A) and
A1C (D) are not standard screening tools for GDM.
Q4: A pregnant client at 32 weeks reports severe nausea and vomiting, having lost 5 pounds in
one week. She appears dehydrated with dry mucous membranes and ketonuria. Which condition
should the nurse suspect?
• A. Normal first trimester morning sickness
• B. Hyperemesis gravidarum [CORRECT]
• C. Food poisoning
• D. Viral gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum (B) is severe nausea and vomiting in pregnancy causing
weight loss (>5% of prepregnancy weight), dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and ketonuria. It
extends beyond first trimester and requires medical intervention: IV fluids, antiemetics, and
,thiamine supplementation. Morning sickness (A) does not cause significant weight loss or
dehydration.
Q5: Which finding on a nonstress test (NST) indicates a reactive, reassuring fetal status at 32
weeks gestation?
• A. Two accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds each within 20 minutes [CORRECT]
• B. One acceleration of 10 bpm lasting 10 seconds within 30 minutes
• C. No accelerations with good variability
• D. Decelerations with each contraction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A reactive NST at ≥32 weeks requires two accelerations of at least 15 bpm above
baseline, lasting at least 15 seconds each, within a 20-minute window (A). At <32 weeks, criteria
are 10 bpm × 10 seconds (B). No accelerations (C) is nonreactive. Decelerations (D) are
concerning, not reassuring.
Q6: A pregnant client at 35 weeks reports decreased fetal movement. The nurse performs a
biophysical profile (BPP). Which components are included in the BPP assessment?
• A. Fetal breathing movements, gross body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume,
and nonstress test [CORRECT]
• B. Only the nonstress test and ultrasound measurement of fetal weight
• C. Maternal blood pressure and urine protein only
• D. Doppler flow studies of the umbilical artery only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The BPP (A) includes five components: fetal breathing movements (30 seconds
sustained), gross body movements (3+ in 30 minutes), fetal tone (extension/flexion), amniotic
fluid volume (single deepest pocket ≥2 cm), and NST (reactive). Each component scores 0 or 2;
8-10 is normal, 6 is equivocal, ≤4 is abnormal.
Q7: Which instruction should the nurse provide to a pregnant client regarding listeria
prevention?
, • A. "Avoid unpasteurized dairy products and deli meats unless heated until steaming."
[CORRECT]
• B. "Increase consumption of soft cheeses like brie and feta."
• C. "Cold cuts are safe to eat without heating."
• D. "Listeria only affects the mother, not the fetus."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Listeria monocytogenes can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, and neonatal infection.
Pregnant women should avoid unpasteurized dairy, soft cheeses (unless pasteurized), and deli
meats unless heated to steaming (165°F) (A). Listeria can cross the placenta and severely affect
the fetus (D is incorrect).
Q8: A client with Rh-negative blood delivers an Rh-positive infant. When should RhoGAM be
administered postpartum?
• A. Within 72 hours of delivery [CORRECT]
• B. Within 1 week of delivery
• C. Only at the next prenatal visit
• D. Only if the mother becomes sensitized
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM (anti-D immunoglobulin) must be administered within 72 hours
postpartum (A) to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers with Rh-positive infants. It is
also given at 28 weeks gestation and after any sensitizing event (amniocentesis, trauma,
bleeding). Delayed administration reduces effectiveness.
Q9: Which finding indicates a positive contraction stress test (CST)?
• A. No late decelerations with three contractions in 10 minutes
• B. Late decelerations following 50% or more of contractions [CORRECT]
• C. Two accelerations with fetal movement
• D. Baseline variability of 6-25 bpm
Correct Answer: B
