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Examen

ANCC FNP Board Exam Practice Questions Updated 2026/2027 Instant Download – Complete Clinical Questions with Accurate Answers

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This ANCC FNP Board Exam study guide includes comprehensive, exam-focused practice questions with accurate answers covering dermatology, neurology, cardiology, pulmonology, gynecology, rheumatology, and gastrointestinal disorders. Topics include brown recluse spider bite management, multiple sclerosis treatment principles, secondary amenorrhea, community-acquired pneumonia therapy, heart failure lab findings, temporal arteritis, CT scan imaging interpretation, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and hidradenitis suppurativa treatment. The content is organized to strengthen clinical reasoning and board-level management skills for Family Nurse Practitioner certification success. Fully aligned with ANCC FNP exam standards for 2026/2027 testing.

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ANCC FNP Board Questions
with Accurate Answers
A 16-year-old male is in the office. He has a insect bite on his left
forearm and you suspect a brown recluse spider bite. What medical
management would you provide? correct answer ice pack and elevation
of the area


A 34-year-old female with multiple sclerosis (MS) is in the office. She is
now under your care after relocating from another state to live with
relatives who can help her. The nurse practitioner understands that
which of the following is NOT part of her management plan: correct
answer Corticosteroids are often used for maintenance.


A 35-year-old female patient tells you that she has not had a period in
over 3 months. She tells you that until now she has been quite regular
with her periods. This condition is which of the following? correct
answer secondary amenorrhea


A 42-year-old non-smoker is diagnosed with mild community-acquired
pneumonia. He is otherwise healthy and does not need hospitalization
at this time. Which antibiotic can be used for empirical treatment
according to the 2007 Infectious Disease Society of America? correct
answer azithromycin - macrolide ATB

,A 62-year-old male is in the clinic and he has known heart failure (HF).
Which of the following is not likely to be noted in this patient? correct
answer evidence of hemoconcentration on hemogram


The increased circulating volume found in heart failure (HF) will lead to
hemodilution on hemogram, not hemoconcentration.


A 70-year-old female presents with a one-sided headache in the temple
and tenderness over the temporal artery. She complains of vision loss
in one eye. Which of the following diseases is this patient most likely to
have? correct answer temporal arteritis


A CT would allow for a better diagnosis (with "slices") of the patient by
which of the following ways? correct answer -Forms a full three-
dimensional computer model of the inside of the patient.
-It is easier for the physician to pinpoint a problem because of the
narrow "slices" that the scanner uses.


A gastrinoma located on the pancreas or the stomach which secretes
gastrin, stimulating high levels of acid production in the stomach is
which of the following? correct answer Zollinger-Ellison syndrome


A middle-age female patient presents to the clinic with a recurrence of
mild hidradenitis suppurativa after topical therapies failed. Which first-
line treatment is recommended? correct answer Tetracycline

,Twelve weeks of oral tetracycline (Sumycin) is the recommended first-
line treatment for hidradenitis suppurativa.


__________________________________________________


Hidradenitis suppurativa is a disorder of the terminal follicular
epithelium in apocrine gland-bearing skin. It is a chronic, disabling
disorder that progresses, often causing keloids, contractures, and
immobility. It is characterized by comedone-like follicular occlusion,
chronic and relapsing inflammation, mucopurulent discharge, and
progressive scarring.
Arthropathy associated with hidradenitis may be present. Typical
presentation includes nodules and sinus tracts (inflamed or
noninflamed), abscesses, and scarring found in the axilla, genitofemoral
area, perineum, gluteal area, and inframammary area in women.
Recommended treatments include antibiotics, steroids, retinoids,
dapsone, and anti-tumor necrosis factor agents. A dermatology
consultation should also be considered.
First-line treatment is a 12-week course of an oral tetracycline
(Sumycin) such as doxycycline. For patients who do not respond to
doxycycline, the next recommended step is a combination of twice-
daily clindamycin (Cleocin) and rifampicin (Rifadin) for 10-12 weeks. If
treatment fails, acitretin (Soriatane, for males and nonfertile females)
or dapsone (Aczone) may be considered by a dermatologist. In patients
with moderate to severe hidradenitis suppurativa, adalimumab
(Humira) may possibly be considered.

, A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the clinic where the FNP
diagnoses impetigo. The FNP understands that which of the following
statements about treatment for this disease is least accurate? correct
answer Mupirocin and oral erythromycin are not as effective as
penicillin.


A mother brings her 5-year-old child to the clinic with a ringlike pruritic
rash with some central clearing on the arms and legs. The FNP knows
that this is which of the following conditions? correct answer tinea
corporis


A mother brings in her 11-year-old daughter who is having recurrent
abdominal pain. You rule out organic diseases and you develop a
therapeutic plan for this child. This plan might contain all of the
following EXCEPT: correct answer decreasing fiber in the diet


A mother brings in her 7-year-old child with a red rash on his cheeks
and ears. You diagnose Fifth disease. You might recommend all of the
following for this child EXCEPT: correct answer isolation


A patient has recently been diagnosed with Addison's disease. How
often should this patient's electrolytes be monitored? correct answer
every 3-4 months for the first year of therapy


A patient is diagnosed as dehydrated, anxious, and isolated. What
should you give the highest priority? correct answer Dehydration.

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Subido en
24 de febrero de 2026
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