HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR FINAL
EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment finding
indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved?
Page | 1
A. Client denies recent episodes of angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct - ✅✅Catapres acts as a centrally-
acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates a reduction in hypertension. Catapres does not
affect (A, B, or C), so these findings do not indicate desired outcomes of Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). During
administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is
the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct
B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. - ✅✅Unfractionated
heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated
conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous
thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal
surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C). The
anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
P a g e 1 | 53
,HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR FINAL
EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new prescription for
atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor prescription, the nurse assesses the client.
Which finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Heartburn. Page | 2
B. Headache.
C. Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct - ✅✅Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of digitalis
toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the most immediate
intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are expected side effects of Lipitor
A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most important
for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products. - ✅✅Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone
antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B), including
potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification
in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or
increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the next 24
hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct
P a g e 2 | 53
,HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR FINAL
EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
QID.
AC and bedtime.
PC and bedtime. - ✅✅Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be taken around-the-clock (A)
Page | 3
so that a stable blood level of the drug can be maintained, thereby decreasing the possibility of
hypotension (an adverse effect) occurring because of too much of the drug circulating systemically at any
particular time of day. (B, C, and D) do not provide an around-the-clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may
be given with food if GI distress is a problem, but an around-the-clock schedule should still be
maintained.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic
complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific
teaching the nurse should provide to this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess hyponatremia, a cause
of cramping.
C. Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a
serious side effect. Correct
P a g e 3 | 53
, HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR FINAL
EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
D. Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the effectiveness of the
drug. - ✅✅Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-
threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Page | 4
Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the
likely cause of leg pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare provider should
not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those taking Lipitor since the
drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the leg pain symptom.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most important for
the nurse to teach this client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control. Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. - ✅✅Drugs classified in the category X place a client
who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years
should be counseled to use a reliable form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific
precaution with Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for pregnancy with
P a g e 4 | 53
EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment finding
indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved?
Page | 1
A. Client denies recent episodes of angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct - ✅✅Catapres acts as a centrally-
acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates a reduction in hypertension. Catapres does not
affect (A, B, or C), so these findings do not indicate desired outcomes of Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). During
administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is
the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct
B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. - ✅✅Unfractionated
heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated
conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous
thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal
surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C). The
anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
P a g e 1 | 53
,HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR FINAL
EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new prescription for
atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor prescription, the nurse assesses the client.
Which finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Heartburn. Page | 2
B. Headache.
C. Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct - ✅✅Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of digitalis
toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the most immediate
intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are expected side effects of Lipitor
A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most important
for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products. - ✅✅Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone
antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B), including
potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification
in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or
increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the next 24
hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct
P a g e 2 | 53
,HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR FINAL
EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
QID.
AC and bedtime.
PC and bedtime. - ✅✅Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be taken around-the-clock (A)
Page | 3
so that a stable blood level of the drug can be maintained, thereby decreasing the possibility of
hypotension (an adverse effect) occurring because of too much of the drug circulating systemically at any
particular time of day. (B, C, and D) do not provide an around-the-clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may
be given with food if GI distress is a problem, but an around-the-clock schedule should still be
maintained.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic
complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific
teaching the nurse should provide to this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess hyponatremia, a cause
of cramping.
C. Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a
serious side effect. Correct
P a g e 3 | 53
, HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR FINAL
EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
D. Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the effectiveness of the
drug. - ✅✅Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-
threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Page | 4
Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the
likely cause of leg pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare provider should
not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those taking Lipitor since the
drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the leg pain symptom.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most important for
the nurse to teach this client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control. Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. - ✅✅Drugs classified in the category X place a client
who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years
should be counseled to use a reliable form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific
precaution with Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for pregnancy with
P a g e 4 | 53
