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Examen

NUR 6121: EXAM 2 ADVANCED NURSING PRACTICE MASTER SET 2026 | Verified Q&A & RATIONALES | A+ Graded Complete Update

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Ace your NUR 6121 Exam 2 with the definitive 2026 Advanced Nursing Practice Master Set. This document is specifically tailored for students in advanced practice nursing programs, focusing on the complex theoretical frameworks, ethical dilemmas, and leadership roles expected of Nurse Practitioners. It includes verified exam-style questions with detailed rationales covering the full scope of the second exam's content. Key Exam 2 Topics Covered: Theoretical Frameworks: Application of key nursing and non-nursing theories to advanced practice. Role Transition: Understanding the move from BSN to APN, legal scope of practice, and credentialing. Ethics & Advocacy: Bioethical principles (autonomy, beneficence), moral distress, and patient advocacy in the healthcare system. Health Policy: Analysis of healthcare policy impact on APN practice and patient outcomes. Leadership & Collaboration: Team-based care models, conflict resolution, and evidence-based leadership. This master set ensures you grasp the high-level concepts required for success in your advanced degree.

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NUR 6121: Exam 2 Advanced Nursing Practice Master Set


1. A patient presents with polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia. Which diagnostic
test is the priority?
• A. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

• B. Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) ✅

• C. Serum Creatinine

• D. Liver Function Test (LFT)

• Rationale: The "3 Ps" are hallmark signs of Diabetes Mellitus. An FPG ≥ 126
mg/dL is a primary diagnostic criterion.

2. When assessing an elderly patient for frailty, the nurse practitioner should
focus on which "Geriatric Giants"?
• A. Hypertension and Diabetes

• B. Falls, Incontinence, and Cognitive Impairment ✅

• C. Hearing loss and Vision changes

• D. Obesity and Sleep Apnea

• Rationale: Frailty is defined by a decline in functional reserve, often manifesting
as mobility issues and mental status changes.

3. In what order should a physical assessment of the abdomen be performed?
• A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation

• B. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation ✅

• C. Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion, Palpation

• D. Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection

• Rationale: Auscultation must be done second to ensure that palpation and
percussion do not artificially stimulate or alter bowel sounds.

4. Which screening criteria justifies testing an asymptomatic adult for Type 2
Diabetes?

, • A. Age > 30 and BMI of 22

• B. BMI > 25 and HDL < 35 mg/dL ✅

• C. History of hypotension

• D. Recent weight loss

• Rationale: Risk factors for T2DM screening include obesity (BMI > 25) combined
with dyslipidemia (low HDL or high triglycerides).

5. A 75-year-old patient reports a sudden onset of confusion and agitation. The
nurse should first investigate:
• A. Early-stage Alzheimer’s

• B. Acute Urinary Tract Infection (Delirium) ✅

• C. Major Depressive Disorder

• D. Normal age-related decline

• Rationale: Acute confusion in geriatrics is often "Delirium," frequently caused by
underlying infections like UTIs or medication interactions.

6. Which lab value is most indicative of Hypothyroidism?
• A. Low TSH, High T4

• B. High TSH, Low T4 ✅

• C. Low TSH, Low T4

• D. High TSH, High T4

• Rationale: In primary hypothyroidism, the pituitary gland overproduces TSH to
stimulate a failing thyroid gland.

7. An elderly patient is on 12 different medications. This is defined as:
• A. Therapeutic duplication

• B. Polypharmacy ✅

• C. Palliative care

• D. Adherence protocol

, • Rationale: Polypharmacy increases the risk of drug-drug interactions and
adverse reactions in the elderly.

8. What is the target A1C for most non-pregnant adults with Diabetes according
to ADA guidelines?
• A. < 6.0%

• B. < 7.0% ✅

• C. < 8.0%

• D. < 9.0%

• Rationale: An A1C of < 7.0% is the standard goal to reduce microvascular
complications.

9. Which assessment tool is gold-standard for screening depression in the
elderly?
• A. Braden Scale

• B. Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS) ✅

• C. Glasgow Coma Scale

• D. Morse Fall Scale

• Rationale: The GDS is specifically designed to account for somatic complaints
that may overlap with normal aging.

10. A patient with T1DM presents with fruity breath and Kussmaul respirations.
The nurse suspects:
• A. Hypoglycemia

• B. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) ✅

• C. Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)

• D. Respiratory Alkalosis

• Rationale: Fruity breath (acetone) and deep, rapid breathing (Kussmaul) are
classic signs of metabolic acidosis in DKA.

11. Which finding distinguishes Delirium from Dementia?
• A. Memory loss

, • B. Abrupt onset and fluctuating course ✅

• C. Difficulty finding words

• D. Occurs only in patients over 80

• Rationale: Delirium is acute and reversible; Dementia is chronic and
progressive.

12. The "Timed Up and Go" (TUG) test is used primarily to assess:
• A. Cognitive speed

• B. Mobility and Fall Risk ✅

• C. Medication adherence

• D. Fine motor skills

• Rationale: TUG measures the time it takes for a patient to stand, walk 3 meters,
and sit back down.

13. Which medication class is first-line for Type 2 Diabetes management?
• A. Sulfonylureas

• B. Biguanides (Metformin) ✅

• C. SGLT2 Inhibitors

• D. Insulin

• Rationale: Metformin is the preferred initial agent due to efficacy and safety
profile.

14. A patient with hyperthyroidism (Graves' Disease) is likely to exhibit:
• A. Bradycardia and weight gain

• B. Tachycardia, heat intolerance, and exophthalmos ✅

• C. Constipation and dry skin

• D. Lethargy and cold intolerance

• Rationale: Hyperthyroidism accelerates metabolism, leading to a "speeded up"
state.

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Subido en
20 de febrero de 2026
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81
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2025/2026
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