UWISE OBGYN BUNDLED EXAMS FINAL
PAPER COLLECTION 2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
⩥ A 17-year-old G0 high school student is brought in by her mother for
her first gynecologic examination. She began her menses at age 12 and
has had regular periods for the past three years. Her last menstrual
period was one week ago. For privacy, you ask to examine the patient
without her mother. Further history is obtained in the examination room.
She admits that she has been sexually active with her boyfriend for the
past three years. She uses condoms occasionally and is fearful about
possible pregnancy. She requests that her mother not be informed about
her sexual activity. On physical examination, she is anxious, but
normally developed. Her pelvic examination reveals no vulvar lesions,
minimal non-malodorous discharge, and a nulliparous appearing cervix.
The bimanual examination reveals a normal size uterus, and her adnexa
are non-tender and not enlarged. Urine pregnancy test is negative. In
addition to discussing. Answer: C. Counseling about and screening for
sexually transmitted infections is the best next step. This patient does not
require treatment due to a lack of diagnostic criteria. A serum Beta-hCG
is not indicated in the setting of normal menstrual cycles with last
menstrual period a week ago and a negative urine pregnancy test.
Guidelines for initiation of cervical cancer screening is recommended at
age 21 regardless of coitarche. A pelvic ultrasound would not be
indicated at this time especially since the pregnancy test is negative and
given her lack of menstrual or pelvic symptoms.
,⩥ A 68-year-old G2P2 woman who has recently moved in with her
daughter (a long-standing patient of yours) comes in for a health
maintenance examination. A vaginal hysterectomy was done in her
fifties for uterine prolapse. She is not sure if her ovaries were removed.
She has never had an abnormal mammogram or Pap test and has had
yearly exams. She stopped hormone replacement therapy 10 years ago.
She was recently widowed after being married for 50 years. She does not
smoke or drink. Her diabetes is well-controlled with Metformin; she
takes a daily baby aspirin and is on a lipid-lowering agent. On
examination, she is a thin elderly woman with a dowager's hump. Her
breast exam is unremarkable. Her lower genital tract is notable for
atrophy. No masses are noted on bimanual and recto-vaginal exam. A
fecal occult blood test is negative. Which of the following tests is not
necessary?
A. Bone density
B. Colonoscopy
C. Pap. Answer: C. Pap test screening is not indicated in patients who
have had a hysterectomy, unless it was done for cervical cancer or a
high-grade cervical dyspalsia. Patients with a uterus can discontinue
cervical cancer screening between the ages of 65-70 if they have had
three consecutive negative smears or two negative consecutive cotesting
in the last 10 years and no history of high-grade cervical intraepithelial
neoplasia or cancer. Patients still need yearly bimanual and rectovaginal
exam. Mammograms are done annually, as breast cancer increases with
age. Colon cancer screening is recommended at age fifty. The patient has
an exaggerated thoracic spine curvature, termed a dowager's hump,
likely secondary to thoracic compression fractures secondary to
,osteoporosis. If this is confirmed on a bone density test, she may benefit
from the addition of bisphosphonates
⩥ A 32-year-old G2P2 woman presents for a health maintenance
examination. She is in good health and has no concerns. She does not
have a history of abnormal Pap test and her last one was three years ago.
Her examination is normal including her pelvic exam. A Pap test is
performed and returns as normal with HPV negative. What is the most
appropriate screening recommendation for cervical cancer in this
patient?
A. Pap test and HPV testing in one year
B. Pap test and HPV testing in three years
C. Pap test and HPV testing in five years
D. HPV testing alone in one year
E. HPV testing alone in three years. Answer: C. According to the
American Cancer Society (ACS), the American Society for Colposcopy
and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP), and the American Society for Clinical
Pathology (ASCP) guidelines for the Prevention and Early Detection of
Cervical Cancer, women ages 30 to 65 years should be screened with
cytology and HPV testing (''co-testing'') every five years (preferred) or
cytology alone every three years (acceptable). Screening by HPV testing
alone is not recommended for most clinical settings and there is
insufficient evidence to change screening intervals in this age group
following a history of negative screens.
, ⩥ A 28-year-old G0 woman has a pap test which is reported as high-
grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL). She is currently sexually
active. She has had six sexual partners and has been in a monogamous
relationship with her fiancé for the last year. What is the next most
appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Colposcopy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Reflex HPV testing
D. Repeat Pap test in one month
E. Repeat Pap test in six months. Answer: A. The American Society for
Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology guidelines recommend immediate
LEEP or colposcopy for women with HSIL cytology test results. A
diagnostic excisional procedure is recommended for women with HSIL
cytology test results when the colposcopic examination is inadequate.
Unlike a LEEP, cryotherapy is inadequate as this procedure does not
provide a tissue specimen. Repeat cytology testing alone or reflex HPV
testing is unacceptable. For women not managed with immediate
excision, colposcopy is recommended regardless of HPV result obtained
at co-testing.
⩥ A 19-year-old G0 woman presents with lower abdominal cramping.
The pain started with her menses and has persisted, despite resolution of
the bleeding. She thinks she may have a fever, but has not taken her
temperature. No urinary frequency or dysuria are present. Her bowel
habits are regular. She denies vomiting, but has mild nausea. A yellow
blood-tinged vaginal discharge preceded her menses. No pruritus or odor
PAPER COLLECTION 2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
⩥ A 17-year-old G0 high school student is brought in by her mother for
her first gynecologic examination. She began her menses at age 12 and
has had regular periods for the past three years. Her last menstrual
period was one week ago. For privacy, you ask to examine the patient
without her mother. Further history is obtained in the examination room.
She admits that she has been sexually active with her boyfriend for the
past three years. She uses condoms occasionally and is fearful about
possible pregnancy. She requests that her mother not be informed about
her sexual activity. On physical examination, she is anxious, but
normally developed. Her pelvic examination reveals no vulvar lesions,
minimal non-malodorous discharge, and a nulliparous appearing cervix.
The bimanual examination reveals a normal size uterus, and her adnexa
are non-tender and not enlarged. Urine pregnancy test is negative. In
addition to discussing. Answer: C. Counseling about and screening for
sexually transmitted infections is the best next step. This patient does not
require treatment due to a lack of diagnostic criteria. A serum Beta-hCG
is not indicated in the setting of normal menstrual cycles with last
menstrual period a week ago and a negative urine pregnancy test.
Guidelines for initiation of cervical cancer screening is recommended at
age 21 regardless of coitarche. A pelvic ultrasound would not be
indicated at this time especially since the pregnancy test is negative and
given her lack of menstrual or pelvic symptoms.
,⩥ A 68-year-old G2P2 woman who has recently moved in with her
daughter (a long-standing patient of yours) comes in for a health
maintenance examination. A vaginal hysterectomy was done in her
fifties for uterine prolapse. She is not sure if her ovaries were removed.
She has never had an abnormal mammogram or Pap test and has had
yearly exams. She stopped hormone replacement therapy 10 years ago.
She was recently widowed after being married for 50 years. She does not
smoke or drink. Her diabetes is well-controlled with Metformin; she
takes a daily baby aspirin and is on a lipid-lowering agent. On
examination, she is a thin elderly woman with a dowager's hump. Her
breast exam is unremarkable. Her lower genital tract is notable for
atrophy. No masses are noted on bimanual and recto-vaginal exam. A
fecal occult blood test is negative. Which of the following tests is not
necessary?
A. Bone density
B. Colonoscopy
C. Pap. Answer: C. Pap test screening is not indicated in patients who
have had a hysterectomy, unless it was done for cervical cancer or a
high-grade cervical dyspalsia. Patients with a uterus can discontinue
cervical cancer screening between the ages of 65-70 if they have had
three consecutive negative smears or two negative consecutive cotesting
in the last 10 years and no history of high-grade cervical intraepithelial
neoplasia or cancer. Patients still need yearly bimanual and rectovaginal
exam. Mammograms are done annually, as breast cancer increases with
age. Colon cancer screening is recommended at age fifty. The patient has
an exaggerated thoracic spine curvature, termed a dowager's hump,
likely secondary to thoracic compression fractures secondary to
,osteoporosis. If this is confirmed on a bone density test, she may benefit
from the addition of bisphosphonates
⩥ A 32-year-old G2P2 woman presents for a health maintenance
examination. She is in good health and has no concerns. She does not
have a history of abnormal Pap test and her last one was three years ago.
Her examination is normal including her pelvic exam. A Pap test is
performed and returns as normal with HPV negative. What is the most
appropriate screening recommendation for cervical cancer in this
patient?
A. Pap test and HPV testing in one year
B. Pap test and HPV testing in three years
C. Pap test and HPV testing in five years
D. HPV testing alone in one year
E. HPV testing alone in three years. Answer: C. According to the
American Cancer Society (ACS), the American Society for Colposcopy
and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP), and the American Society for Clinical
Pathology (ASCP) guidelines for the Prevention and Early Detection of
Cervical Cancer, women ages 30 to 65 years should be screened with
cytology and HPV testing (''co-testing'') every five years (preferred) or
cytology alone every three years (acceptable). Screening by HPV testing
alone is not recommended for most clinical settings and there is
insufficient evidence to change screening intervals in this age group
following a history of negative screens.
, ⩥ A 28-year-old G0 woman has a pap test which is reported as high-
grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL). She is currently sexually
active. She has had six sexual partners and has been in a monogamous
relationship with her fiancé for the last year. What is the next most
appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Colposcopy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Reflex HPV testing
D. Repeat Pap test in one month
E. Repeat Pap test in six months. Answer: A. The American Society for
Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology guidelines recommend immediate
LEEP or colposcopy for women with HSIL cytology test results. A
diagnostic excisional procedure is recommended for women with HSIL
cytology test results when the colposcopic examination is inadequate.
Unlike a LEEP, cryotherapy is inadequate as this procedure does not
provide a tissue specimen. Repeat cytology testing alone or reflex HPV
testing is unacceptable. For women not managed with immediate
excision, colposcopy is recommended regardless of HPV result obtained
at co-testing.
⩥ A 19-year-old G0 woman presents with lower abdominal cramping.
The pain started with her menses and has persisted, despite resolution of
the bleeding. She thinks she may have a fever, but has not taken her
temperature. No urinary frequency or dysuria are present. Her bowel
habits are regular. She denies vomiting, but has mild nausea. A yellow
blood-tinged vaginal discharge preceded her menses. No pruritus or odor
