Women’s Health Nurse Practitioner (WHNP) Practice
Exam Verified Questions, Correct Answers, and
Detailed Explanations for Science Students||Already
Graded A+
1. A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding
for the past 6 months. Which is the first-line diagnostic test to
evaluate for structural causes?
a. Endometrial biopsy
b. Hysterosalpingography
c. Transvaginal ultrasound
d. MRI pelvis
Transvaginal ultrasound is the first-line imaging modality to evaluate
uterine structural abnormalities such as fibroids or polyps in women
with abnormal uterine bleeding.
2. A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and
dysmenorrhea. On examination, her uterus is retroverted. The
most likely diagnosis is:
a. Endometriosis
b. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
c. Adenomyosis
d. Ovarian cyst
PID should be considered in sexually active women with pelvic pain
and tenderness. Retroversion of the uterus is common and not
diagnostic alone.
3. Which contraceptive method is most effective in preventing
pregnancy?
,a. Male condom
b. Oral contraceptive pill
c. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (IUD)
d. Diaphragm
Long-acting reversible contraceptives, such as IUDs and implants,
have the highest efficacy due to minimal user dependence.
4. A 45-year-old woman presents for routine screening. She has no
risk factors. What is the recommended age to stop cervical cancer
screening?
a. 60
b. 65
c. 70
d. 75
Current guidelines recommend stopping cervical cancer screening at
age 65 if there is an adequate history of normal screenings and no
high-risk factors.
5. A patient presents with a suspected ectopic pregnancy. The beta-
hCG level is 1200 mIU/mL, and transvaginal ultrasound shows no
intrauterine gestation. The next best step is:
a. Immediate laparoscopy
b. Repeat beta-hCG in 48 hours
c. MRI pelvis
d. D&C
In early suspected ectopic pregnancy, serial beta-hCG measurements
help assess viability; rising or plateauing levels may indicate ectopic
gestation.
,6. A 30-year-old woman has vulvar pruritus and a thick, white
vaginal discharge. KOH prep shows pseudohyphae. The most
appropriate treatment is:
a. Oral metronidazole
b. Topical clindamycin
c. Oral fluconazole
d. Oral doxycycline
Vulvovaginal candidiasis is typically treated with azole antifungals,
such as oral or topical fluconazole.
7. Which of the following reduces the risk of osteoporosis in
postmenopausal women?
a. High sodium diet
b. Weight-bearing exercise
c. Smoking
d. Excess alcohol intake
Weight-bearing exercises stimulate bone formation and help
maintain bone density in postmenopausal women.
8. A 25-year-old woman requests emergency contraception within
72 hours of unprotected intercourse. The most effective option is:
a. Copper IUD
b. Levonorgestrel pill
c. Ulipristal acetate pill
d. Barrier methods
Ulipristal acetate is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected
intercourse and is more effective than levonorgestrel pills within the
72-hour window.
, 9. Which hormone primarily stimulates ovulation?
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
The LH surge triggers ovulation, releasing the mature oocyte from the
ovarian follicle.
10. A 35-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhea for
6 months. Initial labs show elevated prolactin. The first diagnostic
step is:
a. Pelvic ultrasound
b. Thyroid ultrasound
c. MRI of the pituitary
d. Hysteroscopy
Hyperprolactinemia is most commonly due to a pituitary adenoma;
MRI of the pituitary is indicated to evaluate for this.
11. Which of the following increases the risk of breast cancer?
a. Early menopause
b. Multiparity
c. Breastfeeding
d. BRCA1 mutation
BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations significantly increase lifetime risk of
breast and ovarian cancers.
12. Which STI can cause congenital infection if untreated during
pregnancy?
Exam Verified Questions, Correct Answers, and
Detailed Explanations for Science Students||Already
Graded A+
1. A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding
for the past 6 months. Which is the first-line diagnostic test to
evaluate for structural causes?
a. Endometrial biopsy
b. Hysterosalpingography
c. Transvaginal ultrasound
d. MRI pelvis
Transvaginal ultrasound is the first-line imaging modality to evaluate
uterine structural abnormalities such as fibroids or polyps in women
with abnormal uterine bleeding.
2. A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and
dysmenorrhea. On examination, her uterus is retroverted. The
most likely diagnosis is:
a. Endometriosis
b. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
c. Adenomyosis
d. Ovarian cyst
PID should be considered in sexually active women with pelvic pain
and tenderness. Retroversion of the uterus is common and not
diagnostic alone.
3. Which contraceptive method is most effective in preventing
pregnancy?
,a. Male condom
b. Oral contraceptive pill
c. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (IUD)
d. Diaphragm
Long-acting reversible contraceptives, such as IUDs and implants,
have the highest efficacy due to minimal user dependence.
4. A 45-year-old woman presents for routine screening. She has no
risk factors. What is the recommended age to stop cervical cancer
screening?
a. 60
b. 65
c. 70
d. 75
Current guidelines recommend stopping cervical cancer screening at
age 65 if there is an adequate history of normal screenings and no
high-risk factors.
5. A patient presents with a suspected ectopic pregnancy. The beta-
hCG level is 1200 mIU/mL, and transvaginal ultrasound shows no
intrauterine gestation. The next best step is:
a. Immediate laparoscopy
b. Repeat beta-hCG in 48 hours
c. MRI pelvis
d. D&C
In early suspected ectopic pregnancy, serial beta-hCG measurements
help assess viability; rising or plateauing levels may indicate ectopic
gestation.
,6. A 30-year-old woman has vulvar pruritus and a thick, white
vaginal discharge. KOH prep shows pseudohyphae. The most
appropriate treatment is:
a. Oral metronidazole
b. Topical clindamycin
c. Oral fluconazole
d. Oral doxycycline
Vulvovaginal candidiasis is typically treated with azole antifungals,
such as oral or topical fluconazole.
7. Which of the following reduces the risk of osteoporosis in
postmenopausal women?
a. High sodium diet
b. Weight-bearing exercise
c. Smoking
d. Excess alcohol intake
Weight-bearing exercises stimulate bone formation and help
maintain bone density in postmenopausal women.
8. A 25-year-old woman requests emergency contraception within
72 hours of unprotected intercourse. The most effective option is:
a. Copper IUD
b. Levonorgestrel pill
c. Ulipristal acetate pill
d. Barrier methods
Ulipristal acetate is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected
intercourse and is more effective than levonorgestrel pills within the
72-hour window.
, 9. Which hormone primarily stimulates ovulation?
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
The LH surge triggers ovulation, releasing the mature oocyte from the
ovarian follicle.
10. A 35-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhea for
6 months. Initial labs show elevated prolactin. The first diagnostic
step is:
a. Pelvic ultrasound
b. Thyroid ultrasound
c. MRI of the pituitary
d. Hysteroscopy
Hyperprolactinemia is most commonly due to a pituitary adenoma;
MRI of the pituitary is indicated to evaluate for this.
11. Which of the following increases the risk of breast cancer?
a. Early menopause
b. Multiparity
c. Breastfeeding
d. BRCA1 mutation
BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations significantly increase lifetime risk of
breast and ovarian cancers.
12. Which STI can cause congenital infection if untreated during
pregnancy?
