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“ NAVLE EXAM PREP ASSURED ”LATEST EXAM
SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED
100% GRADED A+ (LATEST VERSION) WELL
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NAVLE exam prep
Which of the following provides the best chance for long-term control of
clinical signs associated with an extrahepatic portosystemic vascular shunt in
a cat?
A) Antiemetic and antidiarrheal therapy
B) Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
C) Lactulose and neomycin therapy
D) Low-protein diet
E) Surgical attenuation of the shunt vessel
✅ Correct answer: E) Surgical attenuation of the shunt vessel
Explanation:
An extrahepatic portosystemic shunt (PSS) allows portal blood to bypass the liver,
leading to accumulation of ammonia and other toxins → hepatic encephalopathy,
poor growth, ptyalism, vomiting, ataxia, seizures, etc.
While medical therapy can temporarily manage the signs, surgical attenuation
(partial or complete closure) of the anomalous vessel is the only treatment that offers
long-term control or potential cure.
A 16 year old spayed female Norwich Terrier has an inoperable transitional cell
carcinoma of the bladder. Which of the following drugs may improve the dog's
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quality of life?
A) Carprofen
B) Ibuprofen
C) Naproxen
D) Piroxicam
E) Prednisone
✅ Correct answer: D) Piroxicam
Explanation:
Transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) is the most common malignant tumor of the canine
urinary bladder, particularly in older, small-breed female dogs (e.g., Scottish Terrier,
Sheltie, Westie, Norwich Terrier).When the tumor is inoperable, the goal shifts to
palliative management—reducing inflammation, pain, and tumor burden.
Why Piroxicam is the best choice:
Piroxicam is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits COX
enzymes, reducing prostaglandin-mediated inflammation.
Importantly, it also has direct antitumor effects on TCC cells — by inducing apoptosis
and reducing angiogenesis.
Piroxicam alone can slow tumor progression and improve quality of life for months.
The goat shown (image 5387) has been depressed and has appeared to be
blind for the past 24 hours. The owner began treating the goat for coccidiosis
three days ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Administration of activated charcoal
B) Administration of penicillamine
C) Administration of a sulfonamide
D) Administration of vitamin B1 (thiamine)
E) Rumenotomy
✅ Correct answer: D) Administration of vitamin B1 (thiamine)
Diagnosis:
Polioencephalomalacia (PEM) — most likely thiamine deficiency secondary to
coccidiostat (amprolium) treatment.
Pathophysiology:
Thiamine (vitamin B1) is essential for carbohydrate metabolism and normal brain
function.
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Rumen microflora normally synthesize thiamine, but:
Amprolium (coccidiostat) or high-grain diets → disrupt thiamine production →
deficiency → neuronal necrosis in the cerebral cortex.
Treatment:
Immediate IV thiamine hydrochloride (10-20 mg/kg) → often results in rapid
improvement within hours if caught early.
Supportive care and removal of causative agent (stop amprolium).
A 1 year old Persian cat has had generalized pruritus, a scaly haircoat, and
diffuse alopecia for the past two and a half weeks. Cheyletiellosis is diagnosed
with a cellophane tape test. The most appropriate treatment of the cat's
condition is administration of which of the following drugs?
A) Griseofulvin
B) Ivermectin
C) Ketoconazole
D) Lufenuron
E) Metronidazole
✅ Correct answer: B) Ivermectin
Diagnosis:
Cheyletiellosis — also known as "walking dandruff" — caused by Cheyletiella spp.
mites (usually C. blakei in cats).
Treatment:
-Ivermectin (off-label, SC or PO, repeated every 2 weeks × 3-4 doses) is effective
against Cheyletiella mites.
-Alternative options: selamectin, moxidectin, or lime sulfur dips — but ivermectin
remains a classic, broad-spectrum, effective choice.
-A) Griseofulvin Antifungal for dermatophytosis (ringworm), not mites.
- C) Ketoconazole Antifungal; no effect on ectoparasites.
- D) Lufenuron Chitin inhibitor for flea control; not effective for mites.
- E) Metronidazole Antiprotozoal/antibacterial; irrelevant for ectoparasitic infestation.
A 4 day old commercial crossbred beef cow is found lethargic and standing
alone 18 hours after escaping from her pasture to an area with access to
ground corn. The cow appears to be 8% dehydrated. On physical examination,
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rectal temperature is 102 degrees F (38.9 degrees C), heart rate is 124
beats/min, and respiratory rate is 40 breaths/min. The rumen is mildly
distended. No rumen contractions are auscultated, but splashing and gurgling
sounds are heard over the rumen. No gas or fluid is collected when a stomach
tube is passed. When the tube is removed, the end is clogged with a mixture of
rumen contents and ground corn. Which of the following is the most likely pH
from a rumenocentesis sample?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
A) 4
The owner of a commercial dairy herd containing approximately 850 lactating
Holstein cows reports an increase of mastitis in the herd during the past six
weeks. The farm uses a solution-based teat dip post milking. Affected cows
have mastitis in multiple or all quarters. Milk production is markedly
decreased, and somatic cell counts are increased. Milk secretion varies from
watery milk containing a few clots to a thick colostrum-like material.
Intramammary administration of penicillin has failed to resolve the infection.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management to decrease the
risk of zoonotic disease transmission in this herd?
A) Administer tulathromycin via an intramammary route to all newly infected
cows
B) Contract the state/provincial animal health officials
C) Feed all calves milk from newly infected cows
D)Switch to a barrier teat dip post milking
E) Train all dairy personnel on udder hygiene
✅ Correct answer: B) Contact the state/provincial animal health officials
Diagnosis:
The described outbreak is consistent with Mycobacterium bovis mastitis (tuberculous
mastitis) — a reportable zoonotic disease.
Why this matters:
“ NAVLE EXAM PREP ASSURED ”LATEST EXAM
SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED
100% GRADED A+ (LATEST VERSION) WELL
REVISED GUARANTEE PASS
NAVLE exam prep
Which of the following provides the best chance for long-term control of
clinical signs associated with an extrahepatic portosystemic vascular shunt in
a cat?
A) Antiemetic and antidiarrheal therapy
B) Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
C) Lactulose and neomycin therapy
D) Low-protein diet
E) Surgical attenuation of the shunt vessel
✅ Correct answer: E) Surgical attenuation of the shunt vessel
Explanation:
An extrahepatic portosystemic shunt (PSS) allows portal blood to bypass the liver,
leading to accumulation of ammonia and other toxins → hepatic encephalopathy,
poor growth, ptyalism, vomiting, ataxia, seizures, etc.
While medical therapy can temporarily manage the signs, surgical attenuation
(partial or complete closure) of the anomalous vessel is the only treatment that offers
long-term control or potential cure.
A 16 year old spayed female Norwich Terrier has an inoperable transitional cell
carcinoma of the bladder. Which of the following drugs may improve the dog's
, Page 2 of 126
quality of life?
A) Carprofen
B) Ibuprofen
C) Naproxen
D) Piroxicam
E) Prednisone
✅ Correct answer: D) Piroxicam
Explanation:
Transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) is the most common malignant tumor of the canine
urinary bladder, particularly in older, small-breed female dogs (e.g., Scottish Terrier,
Sheltie, Westie, Norwich Terrier).When the tumor is inoperable, the goal shifts to
palliative management—reducing inflammation, pain, and tumor burden.
Why Piroxicam is the best choice:
Piroxicam is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits COX
enzymes, reducing prostaglandin-mediated inflammation.
Importantly, it also has direct antitumor effects on TCC cells — by inducing apoptosis
and reducing angiogenesis.
Piroxicam alone can slow tumor progression and improve quality of life for months.
The goat shown (image 5387) has been depressed and has appeared to be
blind for the past 24 hours. The owner began treating the goat for coccidiosis
three days ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Administration of activated charcoal
B) Administration of penicillamine
C) Administration of a sulfonamide
D) Administration of vitamin B1 (thiamine)
E) Rumenotomy
✅ Correct answer: D) Administration of vitamin B1 (thiamine)
Diagnosis:
Polioencephalomalacia (PEM) — most likely thiamine deficiency secondary to
coccidiostat (amprolium) treatment.
Pathophysiology:
Thiamine (vitamin B1) is essential for carbohydrate metabolism and normal brain
function.
, Page 3 of 126
Rumen microflora normally synthesize thiamine, but:
Amprolium (coccidiostat) or high-grain diets → disrupt thiamine production →
deficiency → neuronal necrosis in the cerebral cortex.
Treatment:
Immediate IV thiamine hydrochloride (10-20 mg/kg) → often results in rapid
improvement within hours if caught early.
Supportive care and removal of causative agent (stop amprolium).
A 1 year old Persian cat has had generalized pruritus, a scaly haircoat, and
diffuse alopecia for the past two and a half weeks. Cheyletiellosis is diagnosed
with a cellophane tape test. The most appropriate treatment of the cat's
condition is administration of which of the following drugs?
A) Griseofulvin
B) Ivermectin
C) Ketoconazole
D) Lufenuron
E) Metronidazole
✅ Correct answer: B) Ivermectin
Diagnosis:
Cheyletiellosis — also known as "walking dandruff" — caused by Cheyletiella spp.
mites (usually C. blakei in cats).
Treatment:
-Ivermectin (off-label, SC or PO, repeated every 2 weeks × 3-4 doses) is effective
against Cheyletiella mites.
-Alternative options: selamectin, moxidectin, or lime sulfur dips — but ivermectin
remains a classic, broad-spectrum, effective choice.
-A) Griseofulvin Antifungal for dermatophytosis (ringworm), not mites.
- C) Ketoconazole Antifungal; no effect on ectoparasites.
- D) Lufenuron Chitin inhibitor for flea control; not effective for mites.
- E) Metronidazole Antiprotozoal/antibacterial; irrelevant for ectoparasitic infestation.
A 4 day old commercial crossbred beef cow is found lethargic and standing
alone 18 hours after escaping from her pasture to an area with access to
ground corn. The cow appears to be 8% dehydrated. On physical examination,
, Page 4 of 126
rectal temperature is 102 degrees F (38.9 degrees C), heart rate is 124
beats/min, and respiratory rate is 40 breaths/min. The rumen is mildly
distended. No rumen contractions are auscultated, but splashing and gurgling
sounds are heard over the rumen. No gas or fluid is collected when a stomach
tube is passed. When the tube is removed, the end is clogged with a mixture of
rumen contents and ground corn. Which of the following is the most likely pH
from a rumenocentesis sample?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
A) 4
The owner of a commercial dairy herd containing approximately 850 lactating
Holstein cows reports an increase of mastitis in the herd during the past six
weeks. The farm uses a solution-based teat dip post milking. Affected cows
have mastitis in multiple or all quarters. Milk production is markedly
decreased, and somatic cell counts are increased. Milk secretion varies from
watery milk containing a few clots to a thick colostrum-like material.
Intramammary administration of penicillin has failed to resolve the infection.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management to decrease the
risk of zoonotic disease transmission in this herd?
A) Administer tulathromycin via an intramammary route to all newly infected
cows
B) Contract the state/provincial animal health officials
C) Feed all calves milk from newly infected cows
D)Switch to a barrier teat dip post milking
E) Train all dairy personnel on udder hygiene
✅ Correct answer: B) Contact the state/provincial animal health officials
Diagnosis:
The described outbreak is consistent with Mycobacterium bovis mastitis (tuberculous
mastitis) — a reportable zoonotic disease.
Why this matters:
