QUESTIONS ANSWERS GRADED A+
ATI PN Maternal Newborn Nursing Actual Examination | Core Domains: Reproductive Health &
Family Planning, Normal Antepartum Care & Assessment, Intrapartum Process & Support, Postpartum
Assessment & Care, Newborn Assessment & Immediate Care, Newborn Nutrition & Feeding, Common
Maternal & Newborn Complications, and Patient Education & Health Promotion | Practical/Vocational
Nursing Focus | Comprehensive Maternal-Newborn Exam Format
Exam Structure
The PN Maternal Newborn Nursing ATI Actual Exam for the 2026/2027 academic cycle is an
80-question, multiple-choice question (MCQ) examination.
Introduction
This PN Maternal Newborn Nursing ATI Actual Exam guide for the 2026/2027 cycle prepares
practical/vocational nursing students for the comprehensive assessment of care for childbearing families
and newborns. The content focuses on the PN's role in providing safe, supportive care during normal
pregnancy, labor, postpartum, and newborn transition, emphasizing data collection, basic interventions,
patient education, and recognition of deviations requiring RN/provider notification.
Answer Format
All correct answers and practical nursing actions must be presented in bold and green, followed by
detailed rationales that align with the LPN/LVN scope of practice, explain normal maternal and newborn
findings, identify key patient teaching points, recognize signs of common complications, and apply
principles of newborn feeding and basic care.
Questions (80 Total)
1. A pregnant client at 20 weeks gestation asks when she will feel the baby move. What is the best
response by the PN?
A. “You should have felt it by now.”
B. “Most first-time mothers feel movements between 18 and 22 weeks.”
C. “Fetal movement isn’t felt until 30 weeks.”
D. “Only ultrasounds can detect movement.”
Rationale: Quickening (first perception of fetal movement) typically occurs at 18–22 weeks in
primigravidas and earlier (16–18 weeks) in multigravidas. This is within the PN’s scope of patient
education. Reassurance is appropriate if within this window. Absence beyond 24 weeks should be
reported to the RN or provider.
2. A client at 32 weeks reports sudden, painless vaginal bleeding. What should the PN do first?
A. Perform a vaginal exam
,B. Assess vital signs and report to the RN immediately
C. Administer oxytocin
D. Encourage ambulation
Rationale: Painless bleeding suggests placenta previa. Vaginal exams are contraindicated. The PN’s
role is to collect data (vital signs, bleeding amount) and report promptly to the RN or provider. Do not
administer medications or encourage activity.
3. A newborn’s 1-minute Apgar score is 8. What does this indicate?
A. Severe distress requiring immediate resuscitation
B. Good transition with minor adjustments needed
C. Need for NICU admission
D. Normal heart rate but absent reflexes
Rationale: Apgar scores range from 0–10. Scores of 7–10 indicate good condition; 4–6 suggest
moderate difficulty; 0–3 indicate severe distress. An 8 means the infant has strong heart rate,
respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and only mild cyanosis (e.g., acrocyanosis). No
resuscitation is needed beyond routine care.
4. A postpartum client 24 hours after delivery has a boggy uterus and heavy lochia. What is the priority
action for the PN?
A. Administer oxytocin IV
B. Massage the fundus and report to the RN
C. Increase oral fluids
D. Apply ice pack to perineum
Rationale: Uterine atony is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The PN may perform fundal
massage as a basic intervention and must report findings to the RN. Oxytocin administration is
typically an RN or provider order. Assess bladder distension—full bladder displaces the uterus.
5. A mother asks how often her newborn should breastfeed. What is the best response?
A. “Every 4 hours during the day”
B. “8 to 12 times in 24 hours, on demand”
C. “Only when the baby cries”
D. “Twice during the night is enough”
, Rationale: Newborns should breastfeed 8–12 times per day to establish milk supply and ensure
adequate intake. Feeding on demand (cues: rooting, sucking hands) is recommended. Crying is a late
hunger sign. Frequent feeding supports weight gain and jaundice prevention.
6. Which finding in a 2-day-old newborn requires immediate follow-up?
A. Weight loss of 5%
B. Caput succedaneum
C. Jaundice appearing within the first 24 hours
D. Acrocyanosis
Rationale: Jaundice in the first 24 hours is pathologic and may indicate hemolytic disease (e.g.,
Rh/ABO incompatibility), infection, or metabolic disorder. Physiologic jaundice appears after 24 hours.
Weight loss ≤7% is normal. Caput and acrocyanosis are benign transitional findings.
7. A client at 28 weeks has a blood pressure of 142/92 mm Hg and 2+ proteinuria. What should the PN
do?
A. Administer antihypertensive medication
B. Report the findings to the RN or provider
C. Recheck in 1 hour
D. Encourage bed rest without reporting
Rationale: Hypertension ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with proteinuria suggests preeclampsia—a
reportable condition. The PN collects data and reports abnormalities to the RN or provider. Medication
administration and independent diagnosis are outside the PN scope.
8. When teaching about car seat safety, the PN should emphasize:
A. Forward-facing is acceptable after 1 month
B. Rear-facing in the back seat until at least age 2
C. Use of a booster seat immediately
D. Front passenger seat with airbag off
Rationale: AAP recommends infants remain rear-facing in the back seat until at least age 2 or until
they reach the car seat’s height/weight limit. Airbags can cause fatal injury to rear-facing infants in the
front seat. Booster seats are for older children (typically >40 lb).
9. A postpartum client says, “I feel so sad and overwhelmed.” She is bonding with her infant. What is the
most likely explanation?