EXAM TEST BANK) DIAGNOSIS &
MANAGEMENT IN PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL
HEALTH ACROSS THE LIFESPAN |COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
GRADED A+|CHAMBERLAIN
1. A 28-year-old female presents with persistent sadness,
anhedonia, insomnia, and fatigue for 8 weeks. No manic
symptoms. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Persistent depressive disorder
b. Major depressive disorder
c. Bipolar II disorder
d. Adjustment disorder
Correct Answer b. Major depressive disorder
Rationale Requires ≥5 symptoms (including depressed mood
or anhedonia) for ≥2 weeks; distinguishes from persistent (≥2
years, fewer symptoms).
2. Accountability in PMHNP practice refers to:
a. Liability for one's own actions
b. Employer responsibility only
c. Joint liability with physicians
, d. No legal recourse
Correct Answer a. Liability for one's own actions
Rationale NPs are individually accountable for standard of
care per ethics and state practice acts.
3. Vicarious liability holds:
a. The employer responsible for employee negligence
b. Only the NP accountable
c. No one liable
d. Physicians only
Correct Answer a. The employer responsible for employee
negligence
Rationale Doctrine applies in collaborative settings; employer
vicariously liable for NP acts within scope.
4. Joint and several liability applies when:
a. Care provided by multiple professionals
b. Solo practice
c. No errors
d. Administrative roles
Correct Answer a. Care provided by multiple professionals
Rationale Any negligent provider can be held fully
accountable; common in team-based psych care.
,5. Medical negligence in PMHNP practice involves:
a. Failure to meet standard of care
b. Routine prescribing
c. Informed consent always
d. Telehealth only
Correct Answer a. Failure to meet standard of care
Rationale Breach causing harm (e.g., wrong diagnosis,
inadequate monitoring of SSRIs in youth).
6. A 10-year-old with hyperactivity, inattention, and impulsivity
since age 6 meets criteria for:
a. ADHD combined presentation
b. Autism spectrum disorder
c. Oppositional defiant disorder
d. Conduct disorder
Correct Answer a. ADHD combined presentation
Rationale Symptoms in ≥2 settings before age 12; combined
type.
7. First-line non-pharmacologic treatment for pediatric anxiety is:
a. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
b. SSRIs
, c. Benzodiazepines
d. Family therapy only
Correct Answer a. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
Rationale CBT (exposure/response prevention) is
recommended before medication in children.
8. In a 65-year-old with new depression, consider:
a. Screen for hypothyroidism and B12 deficiency
b. Start MAOI immediately
c. Ignore comorbidities
d. Prescribe stimulants
Correct Answer a. Screen for hypothyroidism and B12 deficiency
Rationale Geriatric depression often has medical causes
(pseudodementia); exclude these first.
9. A patient pouts in group therapy, feeling others favored; later
links to sibling jealousy. This reflects:
a. Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) insight
b. CBT cognitive distortion
c. Psychodynamic transference
d. Behavioral conditioning
Correct Answer a. Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) insight