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WGU D118 Objective Assessment Final ACTUAL
EXAM 2026/2027 | Latest Versions A, B & C | Verified
Questions and Answers | Everything You Need to Pass
| Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
COMPETENCY DOMAIN: ANALYTICAL & CRITICAL THINKING (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A mid-sized healthcare organization is implementing a new Electronic Health Record (EHR)
system. The project team has collected six months of pre-implementation data on medication
error rates, documentation time, and patient satisfaction scores. Three months post-
implementation, medication errors have decreased 15%, but documentation time has increased
25% and patient satisfaction remains unchanged. The Chief Nursing Officer (CNO) must present
these findings to the board. Which analytical approach BEST demonstrates evidence-based
evaluation of the implementation?
A. Report only the medication error reduction as proof of success, since patient safety is the
primary goal
B. Compare the results against the original project objectives and benchmark data from similar
organizations
C. Attribute the documentation increase to staff resistance and recommend immediate system
replacement
D. Extend the evaluation period indefinitely until all metrics show improvement
Correct Answer: B Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Evidence-based evaluation requires
holistic assessment against predetermined success criteria and external benchmarks, not selective
reporting. The scenario presents mixed results—improvement in one metric (safety) with
degradation in another (efficiency) and stagnation in a third (satisfaction). The CNO must
analyze whether the trade-offs align with organizational priorities and industry standards. Choice
B applies the standard evaluation framework: comparing actual outcomes to stated objectives
(did we achieve what we set out to do?) and benchmarking (how do we compare to peers?). This
allows balanced, defensible decision-making. Choice A commits confirmation bias by ignoring
negative data. Choice C makes an unsubstantiated causal attribution without root cause analysis.
Choice D avoids accountability by indefinitely delaying evaluation.
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Q2: A software development team using Agile methodology has completed five sprints. Velocity
data shows: Sprint 1 (24 points), Sprint 2 (28 points), Sprint 3 (22 points), Sprint 4 (30 points),
Sprint 5 (20 points). The product owner pressures the team to commit to 35 points for Sprint 6 to
meet a client deadline. Which data interpretation BEST supports sustainable planning?
A. The average velocity of 24.8 points suggests 25 points is a realistic commitment, with 35
points risking burnout and quality degradation
B. The upward trend in Sprints 2 and 4 proves the team can achieve 35 points with proper
motivation
C. The variability indicates the team is unreliable and should be replaced with more consistent
performers
D. The Sprint 5 decline is an anomaly that should be excluded from calculations
Correct Answer: A Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Agile velocity is a planning tool, not a
performance metric; sustainable pace prioritizes consistent delivery over heroic efforts. The data
shows high variability (coefficient of variation ~16%), typical for complex knowledge work,
with no clear trend. The mean (24.8) and median (24) converge around 25 points. Committing to
35 points represents a 40% increase over the mean and 75% increase over the minimum—
statistically unsustainable and practically risky. Choice B commits the gambler's fallacy, cherry-
picking upward data points while ignoring regression. Choice C fundamentally misunderstands
Agile, blaming teams for inherent uncertainty in creative work. Choice D commits confirmation
bias by dismissing inconvenient data without investigation. Sustainable Agile planning uses
rolling averages and accounts for variability, not external pressure.
Q3: A manufacturing quality control team discovers that 3% of units from Production Line A fail
final inspection, compared to 8% from Line B. Line A uses automated testing; Line B uses
manual inspection. The operations director proposes converting Line B to automated testing to
match Line A's performance. Which critical thinking step is MISSING before this decision?
A. Calculating the cost savings from reduced failure rates
B. Determining whether the failure types differ between lines and whether automated testing can
detect them
C. Surveying Line B workers about their opinions on automation
D. Benchmarking against competitors' inspection methods
Correct Answer: B Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Root cause analysis must precede
solution implementation; correlation does not imply causation or transferability. The data shows
association (automation ↔ lower failure rate) but not mechanism. If Line B's failures are
primarily subtle cosmetic defects that automated systems miss, automation could increase
escapes. If they're component alignment issues that automation excels at detecting, conversion is
justified. This is the critical analytical gap—understanding WHAT is failing and WHETHER the
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proposed solution addresses it. Choice A assumes the solution is correct and calculates ROI
prematurely. Choice C gathers stakeholder input but doesn't address technical feasibility. Choice
D looks externally when internal causal analysis is required first.
Q4: A project manager analyzes stakeholder influence and interest using a Power/Interest Grid.
Stakeholder X has high power and high interest; Stakeholder Y has low power and high interest;
Stakeholder Z has high power and low interest. The project faces a resource conflict requiring
stakeholder alignment. Which engagement strategy is MOST appropriate?
A. Collaborate closely with X, keep Y informed, and monitor Z for changes
B. Manage X closely, consult with Y, and keep Z satisfied with minimal effort
C. Delegate management of X, involve Y in decision-making, and ignore Z
D. Apply identical engagement intensity to all stakeholders to ensure fairness
Correct Answer: B Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Stakeholder engagement must be
proportionate to power and interest to optimize influence and manage time effectively. The
Power/Interest Grid standard categorization is: High Power/High Interest = Manage Closely (key
players); Low Power/High Interest = Keep Informed (show consideration); High Power/Low
Interest = Keep Satisfied (don't bore but don't ignore). Choice B applies this framework
precisely. Choice A incorrectly suggests "collaboration" for high-power stakeholders when
"management" is more appropriate (they need direction, not equal partnership). Choice C
dangerously delegates high-power stakeholder management and ignores a potentially blocking
stakeholder. Choice D violates the fundamental principle of differentiated engagement, wasting
resources on low-impact stakeholders while under-serving critical ones.
Q5: A data analyst presents quarterly sales trends to executive leadership. The chart shows Q1:
$2.1M, Q2: $2.3M, Q3: $2.0M, Q4: $2.8M. The analyst concludes: "Q4's 40% increase over Q3
proves our new marketing strategy is working." Which logical flaw does this conclusion contain?
A. Confusing correlation with causation and ignoring seasonal factors
B. Using absolute rather than relative figures in the presentation
C. Failing to include statistical significance testing
D. Selecting an inappropriate chart type for the data
Correct Answer: A Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Causal claims require ruling out
confounding variables; Q4 sales spikes often reflect holiday seasonality, not strategy
effectiveness. The analyst attributes the Q4 increase to a new marketing strategy without: (1)
comparing to prior year Q4 (is this above normal seasonal lift?); (2) analyzing control groups or
markets without the strategy; (3) considering that Q3 is typically slow (back-to-school, summer
lulls) making Q4 comparisons artificially inflated. This is post hoc ergo propter hoc (after this,
, 4
therefore because of this) combined with selection bias (choosing the favorable Q3 comparison).
Choice B is incorrect—relative figures are used (40% increase). Choice C is overly technical;
statistical significance doesn't address causation. Choice D is irrelevant to the logical error.
Q6: A nursing administrator evaluates two units' patient fall rates. Unit A: 4.2 falls per 1,000
patient days; Unit B: 3.1 falls per 1,000 patient days. Unit A serves an older population with
higher acuity; Unit B has more private rooms with bathroom grab bars installed. Which
conclusion is BEST supported by this data?
A. Unit B's staff provide superior patient supervision
B. The grab bars in Unit B are the primary cause of lower fall rates
C. Direct comparison is invalid without risk-adjustment for patient populations
D. Unit A should replicate Unit B's staffing model immediately
Correct Answer: C Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Fair comparison requires risk
adjustment; raw rates without context lead to erroneous conclusions and inappropriate
interventions. The scenario explicitly notes confounding variables—age (independent fall risk
factor), acuity (mobility impairment, medication effects), and environmental design (grab bars).
Unit A's higher rate may reflect sicker patients, not worse care. Valid analysis would use risk-
adjusted rates (e.g., falls per 1,000 patient days stratified by age, mobility score, medication
risk). Choice A assumes staff behavior difference without evidence. Choice B isolates one
environmental factor without controlling for others or establishing mechanism. Choice D
prescribes action based on unproven assumptions, potentially wasting resources on staffing when
environmental modifications or population-specific protocols are needed.
Q7: A cybersecurity team detects an anomaly: failed login attempts increased 300% over 48
hours, targeting executive accounts. The CISO must decide on immediate response. Which
analytical prioritization is MOST appropriate?
A. Treat as probable brute force attack and implement account lockout policies
B. Dismiss as likely automated scanning, which is normal background noise
C. Analyze whether the attempts use valid usernames (indicating reconnaissance) or random
strings
D. Immediately disconnect all executive accounts from the network
Correct Answer: C Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Threat intelligence requires
distinguishing targeted attacks from opportunistic scanning to calibrate response appropriately.
The 300% increase is significant, but response severity depends on attacker knowledge. Valid
usernames suggest insider information, social engineering success, or previous breach—
requiring immediate investigation for compromise. Random strings suggest opportunistic
WGU D118 Objective Assessment Final ACTUAL
EXAM 2026/2027 | Latest Versions A, B & C | Verified
Questions and Answers | Everything You Need to Pass
| Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
COMPETENCY DOMAIN: ANALYTICAL & CRITICAL THINKING (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A mid-sized healthcare organization is implementing a new Electronic Health Record (EHR)
system. The project team has collected six months of pre-implementation data on medication
error rates, documentation time, and patient satisfaction scores. Three months post-
implementation, medication errors have decreased 15%, but documentation time has increased
25% and patient satisfaction remains unchanged. The Chief Nursing Officer (CNO) must present
these findings to the board. Which analytical approach BEST demonstrates evidence-based
evaluation of the implementation?
A. Report only the medication error reduction as proof of success, since patient safety is the
primary goal
B. Compare the results against the original project objectives and benchmark data from similar
organizations
C. Attribute the documentation increase to staff resistance and recommend immediate system
replacement
D. Extend the evaluation period indefinitely until all metrics show improvement
Correct Answer: B Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Evidence-based evaluation requires
holistic assessment against predetermined success criteria and external benchmarks, not selective
reporting. The scenario presents mixed results—improvement in one metric (safety) with
degradation in another (efficiency) and stagnation in a third (satisfaction). The CNO must
analyze whether the trade-offs align with organizational priorities and industry standards. Choice
B applies the standard evaluation framework: comparing actual outcomes to stated objectives
(did we achieve what we set out to do?) and benchmarking (how do we compare to peers?). This
allows balanced, defensible decision-making. Choice A commits confirmation bias by ignoring
negative data. Choice C makes an unsubstantiated causal attribution without root cause analysis.
Choice D avoids accountability by indefinitely delaying evaluation.
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Q2: A software development team using Agile methodology has completed five sprints. Velocity
data shows: Sprint 1 (24 points), Sprint 2 (28 points), Sprint 3 (22 points), Sprint 4 (30 points),
Sprint 5 (20 points). The product owner pressures the team to commit to 35 points for Sprint 6 to
meet a client deadline. Which data interpretation BEST supports sustainable planning?
A. The average velocity of 24.8 points suggests 25 points is a realistic commitment, with 35
points risking burnout and quality degradation
B. The upward trend in Sprints 2 and 4 proves the team can achieve 35 points with proper
motivation
C. The variability indicates the team is unreliable and should be replaced with more consistent
performers
D. The Sprint 5 decline is an anomaly that should be excluded from calculations
Correct Answer: A Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Agile velocity is a planning tool, not a
performance metric; sustainable pace prioritizes consistent delivery over heroic efforts. The data
shows high variability (coefficient of variation ~16%), typical for complex knowledge work,
with no clear trend. The mean (24.8) and median (24) converge around 25 points. Committing to
35 points represents a 40% increase over the mean and 75% increase over the minimum—
statistically unsustainable and practically risky. Choice B commits the gambler's fallacy, cherry-
picking upward data points while ignoring regression. Choice C fundamentally misunderstands
Agile, blaming teams for inherent uncertainty in creative work. Choice D commits confirmation
bias by dismissing inconvenient data without investigation. Sustainable Agile planning uses
rolling averages and accounts for variability, not external pressure.
Q3: A manufacturing quality control team discovers that 3% of units from Production Line A fail
final inspection, compared to 8% from Line B. Line A uses automated testing; Line B uses
manual inspection. The operations director proposes converting Line B to automated testing to
match Line A's performance. Which critical thinking step is MISSING before this decision?
A. Calculating the cost savings from reduced failure rates
B. Determining whether the failure types differ between lines and whether automated testing can
detect them
C. Surveying Line B workers about their opinions on automation
D. Benchmarking against competitors' inspection methods
Correct Answer: B Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Root cause analysis must precede
solution implementation; correlation does not imply causation or transferability. The data shows
association (automation ↔ lower failure rate) but not mechanism. If Line B's failures are
primarily subtle cosmetic defects that automated systems miss, automation could increase
escapes. If they're component alignment issues that automation excels at detecting, conversion is
justified. This is the critical analytical gap—understanding WHAT is failing and WHETHER the
,3
proposed solution addresses it. Choice A assumes the solution is correct and calculates ROI
prematurely. Choice C gathers stakeholder input but doesn't address technical feasibility. Choice
D looks externally when internal causal analysis is required first.
Q4: A project manager analyzes stakeholder influence and interest using a Power/Interest Grid.
Stakeholder X has high power and high interest; Stakeholder Y has low power and high interest;
Stakeholder Z has high power and low interest. The project faces a resource conflict requiring
stakeholder alignment. Which engagement strategy is MOST appropriate?
A. Collaborate closely with X, keep Y informed, and monitor Z for changes
B. Manage X closely, consult with Y, and keep Z satisfied with minimal effort
C. Delegate management of X, involve Y in decision-making, and ignore Z
D. Apply identical engagement intensity to all stakeholders to ensure fairness
Correct Answer: B Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Stakeholder engagement must be
proportionate to power and interest to optimize influence and manage time effectively. The
Power/Interest Grid standard categorization is: High Power/High Interest = Manage Closely (key
players); Low Power/High Interest = Keep Informed (show consideration); High Power/Low
Interest = Keep Satisfied (don't bore but don't ignore). Choice B applies this framework
precisely. Choice A incorrectly suggests "collaboration" for high-power stakeholders when
"management" is more appropriate (they need direction, not equal partnership). Choice C
dangerously delegates high-power stakeholder management and ignores a potentially blocking
stakeholder. Choice D violates the fundamental principle of differentiated engagement, wasting
resources on low-impact stakeholders while under-serving critical ones.
Q5: A data analyst presents quarterly sales trends to executive leadership. The chart shows Q1:
$2.1M, Q2: $2.3M, Q3: $2.0M, Q4: $2.8M. The analyst concludes: "Q4's 40% increase over Q3
proves our new marketing strategy is working." Which logical flaw does this conclusion contain?
A. Confusing correlation with causation and ignoring seasonal factors
B. Using absolute rather than relative figures in the presentation
C. Failing to include statistical significance testing
D. Selecting an inappropriate chart type for the data
Correct Answer: A Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Causal claims require ruling out
confounding variables; Q4 sales spikes often reflect holiday seasonality, not strategy
effectiveness. The analyst attributes the Q4 increase to a new marketing strategy without: (1)
comparing to prior year Q4 (is this above normal seasonal lift?); (2) analyzing control groups or
markets without the strategy; (3) considering that Q3 is typically slow (back-to-school, summer
lulls) making Q4 comparisons artificially inflated. This is post hoc ergo propter hoc (after this,
, 4
therefore because of this) combined with selection bias (choosing the favorable Q3 comparison).
Choice B is incorrect—relative figures are used (40% increase). Choice C is overly technical;
statistical significance doesn't address causation. Choice D is irrelevant to the logical error.
Q6: A nursing administrator evaluates two units' patient fall rates. Unit A: 4.2 falls per 1,000
patient days; Unit B: 3.1 falls per 1,000 patient days. Unit A serves an older population with
higher acuity; Unit B has more private rooms with bathroom grab bars installed. Which
conclusion is BEST supported by this data?
A. Unit B's staff provide superior patient supervision
B. The grab bars in Unit B are the primary cause of lower fall rates
C. Direct comparison is invalid without risk-adjustment for patient populations
D. Unit A should replicate Unit B's staffing model immediately
Correct Answer: C Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Fair comparison requires risk
adjustment; raw rates without context lead to erroneous conclusions and inappropriate
interventions. The scenario explicitly notes confounding variables—age (independent fall risk
factor), acuity (mobility impairment, medication effects), and environmental design (grab bars).
Unit A's higher rate may reflect sicker patients, not worse care. Valid analysis would use risk-
adjusted rates (e.g., falls per 1,000 patient days stratified by age, mobility score, medication
risk). Choice A assumes staff behavior difference without evidence. Choice B isolates one
environmental factor without controlling for others or establishing mechanism. Choice D
prescribes action based on unproven assumptions, potentially wasting resources on staffing when
environmental modifications or population-specific protocols are needed.
Q7: A cybersecurity team detects an anomaly: failed login attempts increased 300% over 48
hours, targeting executive accounts. The CISO must decide on immediate response. Which
analytical prioritization is MOST appropriate?
A. Treat as probable brute force attack and implement account lockout policies
B. Dismiss as likely automated scanning, which is normal background noise
C. Analyze whether the attempts use valid usernames (indicating reconnaissance) or random
strings
D. Immediately disconnect all executive accounts from the network
Correct Answer: C Verified Rationale: Core Principle: Threat intelligence requires
distinguishing targeted attacks from opportunistic scanning to calibrate response appropriately.
The 300% increase is significant, but response severity depends on attacker knowledge. Valid
usernames suggest insider information, social engineering success, or previous breach—
requiring immediate investigation for compromise. Random strings suggest opportunistic
