Applied Pathophysiology — Practice Exam (Urinary,
Renal & Mental Health)
Correct answers highlighted
Q1. Which of the following is true regarding a complicated urinary tract infection?
Correct answer: Can be caused by a structural urinary tract disorder
Q2. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
Correct answer: Pregnancy
Q3. A symptom of a lower urinary tract infection includes:
Correct answer: urgency
Q4. Women are at a higher risk for the development of a UTI because of having a shorter urethra.
Correct answer: true
Q5. Which of the following can help to prevent a UTI?
Correct answer: Increase water consumption
Q6. Uncomplicated UTI
Correct answer: Occurs in the normal urinary tract
Responds well to short course of antibiotic therapy
Simple cystitis in non-pregnant women without any urologic abnormalities
Q7. Complicated UTI
Correct answer: UTI extends beyond the bladder
Caused by structural or functional urinary tract abnormalities or untreated UTI
Infants and older adults affected
Associated with: indwelling catheters, renal calculi, diabetes, pregnancy
Q8. A 25 year- old female presents to the primary care office with urinary burning and frequency for
the last 3 days. She denies any fever, chills, back pain. Her gynecological history is negative and reports
no vaginal discharge. The only new information reported is that she recently had sexual intercourse
with a new male partner. The NP obtains a urinalysis and determines that the urine contains
leukocytes, RBCs, nitrites, and WBCs. No casts are identified. Based on symptom presentation and UA
results, the patient can be diagnosed with:
Correct answer: cystitis
Q9. J.S. is an 80 -year-old patient who resides in a local nursing home. He recently became confused
and then fell while ambulating to the bathroom three days ago. Because of his confusion and fall, he
was transferred to the acute care facility for evaluation and treatment. Lab work revealed that the
patient was very dehydrated with hypernatremia identified and appropriate intravenous fluids started.
1|Page
, Cystitis was also identified from the urinalysis. He was also noted to have red and excoriated skin
between the buttocks and inner thighs due to urinary frequency and dribbling. To help with skin
healing and to prevent further urine leakage, an indwelling catheter was inserted. Two days after the
catheter was placed, the patient spiked a fever of 102 degrees Fahrenheit associated with shaking
chills. An intense, foul odor was noted in the urine. On examination of the flank area, the patient yelled
out when touched. A urine c
Correct answer: pyelonephritis
Q10. Identify the major risk factor J.S. has that is associated with pyelonephritis:
Correct answer: indwelling foley catheter
Q11. The urinalysis of a patient with a complicated UTI will show WBCs and casts
Correct answer: true
Q12. Upon examination of a urinalysis, the NP can highly suspect that the causative bacteria are gram
negative because of the presence of:
Correct answer: nitrites
Q13. A 21-year-old patient reports to the primary care clinic complaining of urinary urgency, frequency
and burning. She also reports a small amount of vaginal discharge that contains an odor. It is likely that
the NP will perform a vaginal exam at this visit.
Correct answer: true
Q14. The NP would know that the patient most likely has an uncomplicated UTI because:
Correct answer: The UTI responds well to a short course of antibiotic therapy.
Q15. A common organism that causes a urinary tract infection include:
Correct answer: Staphylococcus saprophyticus. E coli
Q16. The purpose of straining in BPH is to overcome the obstruction encountered during urination.
Correct answer: true
Q17. The peripheral zone of the prostate is the largest zone.
Correct answer: true
Q18. On a digital rectal exam to assess the quality of the prostate, the NP would be concerned with
which of the following findings?
Correct answer: hard nodule
Q19. There is a significant risk for men with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) to develop cellular
mutations that lead to prostate cancer.
2|Page
, Correct answer: false
Q20. The patient most often develops symptoms of BPH when:
Correct answer: The prostatic urethra becomes obstructed.
Q21. Irritative symptoms
Correct answer: urinary frequency nocturia
urgency that results from bladder hypertrophy and dysfunction
Q22. obstructive symptoms
Correct answer: incomplete emptying post-void
dribbling
Q23. The action of a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor causes:
Correct answer: Shrinkage of the prostate gland.
Q24. Men who have BPH are prone to developing a UTI because:
Correct answer: Stagnated urine in the bladder promotes bacterial growth.
Q25. The prostate specific antigen (PSA) helps to liquefy semen post-ejaculation.
Correct answer: true
Q26. The underlying cause of BPH is that normal prostate cells respond to increases in
dihydrotestosterone that causes them to live longer and multiply.
Correct answer: true
Q27. The location of the characteristic hyperplastic nodules of BPH is:
Correct answer: In the periurethral zone.
Q28. The type of stone that forms due to a urinary tract infection is:
Correct answer: Struvite stone.
Q29. Renal stones are formed when calcium and oxalate in the urine combine.
Correct answer: true
Q30. Renal calculi are typically confined to the bladder.
Correct answer: false
Q31. The most common type of stone is:
Correct answer: calcium stone
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, Q32. The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is a urinalysis.
Correct answer: false (ct scan)
Q33. Lithotripsy is an invasive procedure used to break up the stone
Correct answer: false
Q34. The most common stone found in the patient with gout is:
Correct answer: uric acid stone
Q35. Hematuria can be seen with kidney stones because:
Correct answer: The stone injures the urinary structures as it passes through them.
Q36. Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the ureter.
Correct answer: true
Q37. At least half of individuals with renal stones will have a reoccurrence within 10 years of the prior
stone.
Correct answer: true
Q38. Which of the following actions will relax the detrusor muscle of the bladder?
Correct answer: Activation of Beta-2 receptors by the sympathetic nervous system.
Q39. The relay station in the brain that plays a major role in regulating micturition is:
Correct answer: Pontine micturition center.
Q40. The location of the internal sphincter is under the urogenital diaphragm.
Correct answer: false (located in the bladder)
Q41. When the bladder is empty, the detrusor muscle relaxes, and the internal and external sphincters
constrict.
Correct answer: true
Q42. The levator ani muscle plays a major role in constriction of the external sphincter.
Correct answer: true
Q43. stress incontinence
Correct answer: leakage of urine with activity
Increased intra-abdominal pressure causes leaking because there is no resistance to counteract the intra-
abdominal pressure
4|Page
Renal & Mental Health)
Correct answers highlighted
Q1. Which of the following is true regarding a complicated urinary tract infection?
Correct answer: Can be caused by a structural urinary tract disorder
Q2. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
Correct answer: Pregnancy
Q3. A symptom of a lower urinary tract infection includes:
Correct answer: urgency
Q4. Women are at a higher risk for the development of a UTI because of having a shorter urethra.
Correct answer: true
Q5. Which of the following can help to prevent a UTI?
Correct answer: Increase water consumption
Q6. Uncomplicated UTI
Correct answer: Occurs in the normal urinary tract
Responds well to short course of antibiotic therapy
Simple cystitis in non-pregnant women without any urologic abnormalities
Q7. Complicated UTI
Correct answer: UTI extends beyond the bladder
Caused by structural or functional urinary tract abnormalities or untreated UTI
Infants and older adults affected
Associated with: indwelling catheters, renal calculi, diabetes, pregnancy
Q8. A 25 year- old female presents to the primary care office with urinary burning and frequency for
the last 3 days. She denies any fever, chills, back pain. Her gynecological history is negative and reports
no vaginal discharge. The only new information reported is that she recently had sexual intercourse
with a new male partner. The NP obtains a urinalysis and determines that the urine contains
leukocytes, RBCs, nitrites, and WBCs. No casts are identified. Based on symptom presentation and UA
results, the patient can be diagnosed with:
Correct answer: cystitis
Q9. J.S. is an 80 -year-old patient who resides in a local nursing home. He recently became confused
and then fell while ambulating to the bathroom three days ago. Because of his confusion and fall, he
was transferred to the acute care facility for evaluation and treatment. Lab work revealed that the
patient was very dehydrated with hypernatremia identified and appropriate intravenous fluids started.
1|Page
, Cystitis was also identified from the urinalysis. He was also noted to have red and excoriated skin
between the buttocks and inner thighs due to urinary frequency and dribbling. To help with skin
healing and to prevent further urine leakage, an indwelling catheter was inserted. Two days after the
catheter was placed, the patient spiked a fever of 102 degrees Fahrenheit associated with shaking
chills. An intense, foul odor was noted in the urine. On examination of the flank area, the patient yelled
out when touched. A urine c
Correct answer: pyelonephritis
Q10. Identify the major risk factor J.S. has that is associated with pyelonephritis:
Correct answer: indwelling foley catheter
Q11. The urinalysis of a patient with a complicated UTI will show WBCs and casts
Correct answer: true
Q12. Upon examination of a urinalysis, the NP can highly suspect that the causative bacteria are gram
negative because of the presence of:
Correct answer: nitrites
Q13. A 21-year-old patient reports to the primary care clinic complaining of urinary urgency, frequency
and burning. She also reports a small amount of vaginal discharge that contains an odor. It is likely that
the NP will perform a vaginal exam at this visit.
Correct answer: true
Q14. The NP would know that the patient most likely has an uncomplicated UTI because:
Correct answer: The UTI responds well to a short course of antibiotic therapy.
Q15. A common organism that causes a urinary tract infection include:
Correct answer: Staphylococcus saprophyticus. E coli
Q16. The purpose of straining in BPH is to overcome the obstruction encountered during urination.
Correct answer: true
Q17. The peripheral zone of the prostate is the largest zone.
Correct answer: true
Q18. On a digital rectal exam to assess the quality of the prostate, the NP would be concerned with
which of the following findings?
Correct answer: hard nodule
Q19. There is a significant risk for men with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) to develop cellular
mutations that lead to prostate cancer.
2|Page
, Correct answer: false
Q20. The patient most often develops symptoms of BPH when:
Correct answer: The prostatic urethra becomes obstructed.
Q21. Irritative symptoms
Correct answer: urinary frequency nocturia
urgency that results from bladder hypertrophy and dysfunction
Q22. obstructive symptoms
Correct answer: incomplete emptying post-void
dribbling
Q23. The action of a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor causes:
Correct answer: Shrinkage of the prostate gland.
Q24. Men who have BPH are prone to developing a UTI because:
Correct answer: Stagnated urine in the bladder promotes bacterial growth.
Q25. The prostate specific antigen (PSA) helps to liquefy semen post-ejaculation.
Correct answer: true
Q26. The underlying cause of BPH is that normal prostate cells respond to increases in
dihydrotestosterone that causes them to live longer and multiply.
Correct answer: true
Q27. The location of the characteristic hyperplastic nodules of BPH is:
Correct answer: In the periurethral zone.
Q28. The type of stone that forms due to a urinary tract infection is:
Correct answer: Struvite stone.
Q29. Renal stones are formed when calcium and oxalate in the urine combine.
Correct answer: true
Q30. Renal calculi are typically confined to the bladder.
Correct answer: false
Q31. The most common type of stone is:
Correct answer: calcium stone
3|Page
, Q32. The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is a urinalysis.
Correct answer: false (ct scan)
Q33. Lithotripsy is an invasive procedure used to break up the stone
Correct answer: false
Q34. The most common stone found in the patient with gout is:
Correct answer: uric acid stone
Q35. Hematuria can be seen with kidney stones because:
Correct answer: The stone injures the urinary structures as it passes through them.
Q36. Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the ureter.
Correct answer: true
Q37. At least half of individuals with renal stones will have a reoccurrence within 10 years of the prior
stone.
Correct answer: true
Q38. Which of the following actions will relax the detrusor muscle of the bladder?
Correct answer: Activation of Beta-2 receptors by the sympathetic nervous system.
Q39. The relay station in the brain that plays a major role in regulating micturition is:
Correct answer: Pontine micturition center.
Q40. The location of the internal sphincter is under the urogenital diaphragm.
Correct answer: false (located in the bladder)
Q41. When the bladder is empty, the detrusor muscle relaxes, and the internal and external sphincters
constrict.
Correct answer: true
Q42. The levator ani muscle plays a major role in constriction of the external sphincter.
Correct answer: true
Q43. stress incontinence
Correct answer: leakage of urine with activity
Increased intra-abdominal pressure causes leaking because there is no resistance to counteract the intra-
abdominal pressure
4|Page
