NSG 620 TEST EXAM 3 NEWEST STUDY
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
CORRECT ANSWERS 100%
GUARANTEED PASS | ASSURED A+
Copyright@2026
,NSG 620 TEST EXAM 3 NEWEST STUDY QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS |
ASSURED A+
In prescribing prednisone for a patient with Bell's palsy, the nurse practitioner (NP) considers
that its use:
A. has not been shown to be helpful in improving outcomes in this condition.
B. should be initiated as soon as possible after the onset of facial paralysis.
C. is likely to help minimize ocular symptoms.
D. may prolong the course of the disease. - Answer>>> B. should be initiated as soon as possible
after the onset of facial paralysis.
A 53-year-old woman who is taking hormone therapy (HT) with conjugated equine estrogen, 0.
45 mg/d, with MPA, 1. 5 mg, has bothersome atrophic vaginitis symptoms. You advise that:
A. her oral estrogen dose should be increased.
B. the addition of a topical estrogen can be helpful.
C. the MPA component should be discontinued.
D. baking soda douche should be tried. - Answer>>> B. the addition of a topical estrogen can be
helpful.
Mrs. Williams would like to schedule an appointment to bring her 18-year-old daughter in for
her first gynecological exam and Pap smear. The most appropriate reply would include:
A. "I would be happy to see your daughter and complete her gynecological exam and Pap
smear."
,B. "Your daughter does not need a gynecological exam and Pap at this time."
C. "Your daughter only needs a gynecological exam and Pap smear when she becomes sexually
active."
D. "I would be happy to see your daughter and complete her gynecological exam; however, she
does not need a Pap smear until the age of 21." - Answer>>> D. "I would be happy to see your
daughter and complete her gynecological exam; however, she does not need a Pap smear until
the age of 21."
Don, age 62, calls to complain of a severe headache. Which of his following statements most
concerns you?
A. "It hurts when I turn my head a specific way."
B. "It's the worst headache I've ever had."
C. "Nothing I do seems to help this constant ache."
D. "I'm so worried. Can you do a CT scan?" - Answer>>> B. "It's the worst headache I've ever
had."
A 68-year-old man presents with new onset of headaches. He describes the pain as bilateral
frontal to occipital and most severe when he arises in the morning and when coughing. He feels
much better by mid-afternoon. The history is most consistent with headache caused by:
A. vascular compromise.
B. increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
C. brain tumor.
D. tension-type with atypical geriatric presentation. - Answer>>> B. increased intracranial
pressure (ICP).
, A 45-year-old man experiences rapidly progressing migraine headaches that are accompanied by
significant GI upset. Appropriate acute headache (abortive) treatment includes all of the
following except:
A. injectable sumatriptan.
B. dihydroergotamine nasal spray.
C. oral naproxen sodium.
D. zolmitriptan nasal spray. - Answer>>> C. oral naproxen sodium.
The typical perpetrator in a domestic violence situation is one who:
A. Has a history of being a victim of abuse.
B. Has a criminal record.
C. Is involved in a new relationship.
D. Is on a lower socioeconomic scale. - Answer>>> A. Has a history of being a victim of abuse.
Which of the following statements about potential drug interactions with phenytoin is false?
A. Phenytoin increases theophylline clearance by increasing CYP 450 enzyme activity.
B. When taken with other highly protein-bound drugs, the free phenytoin concentration can
increase to toxic levels.
C. Phenytoin can increase the metabolic capacity of hepatic enzymes, thus leading to reduced
drug levels.
D. When phenytoin and theophylline are given together, the result is a higher concentration of
both drugs than when given separately. - Answer>>> D. When phenytoin and theophylline are
given together, the result is a higher concentration of both drugs than when given separately.
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
CORRECT ANSWERS 100%
GUARANTEED PASS | ASSURED A+
Copyright@2026
,NSG 620 TEST EXAM 3 NEWEST STUDY QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS |
ASSURED A+
In prescribing prednisone for a patient with Bell's palsy, the nurse practitioner (NP) considers
that its use:
A. has not been shown to be helpful in improving outcomes in this condition.
B. should be initiated as soon as possible after the onset of facial paralysis.
C. is likely to help minimize ocular symptoms.
D. may prolong the course of the disease. - Answer>>> B. should be initiated as soon as possible
after the onset of facial paralysis.
A 53-year-old woman who is taking hormone therapy (HT) with conjugated equine estrogen, 0.
45 mg/d, with MPA, 1. 5 mg, has bothersome atrophic vaginitis symptoms. You advise that:
A. her oral estrogen dose should be increased.
B. the addition of a topical estrogen can be helpful.
C. the MPA component should be discontinued.
D. baking soda douche should be tried. - Answer>>> B. the addition of a topical estrogen can be
helpful.
Mrs. Williams would like to schedule an appointment to bring her 18-year-old daughter in for
her first gynecological exam and Pap smear. The most appropriate reply would include:
A. "I would be happy to see your daughter and complete her gynecological exam and Pap
smear."
,B. "Your daughter does not need a gynecological exam and Pap at this time."
C. "Your daughter only needs a gynecological exam and Pap smear when she becomes sexually
active."
D. "I would be happy to see your daughter and complete her gynecological exam; however, she
does not need a Pap smear until the age of 21." - Answer>>> D. "I would be happy to see your
daughter and complete her gynecological exam; however, she does not need a Pap smear until
the age of 21."
Don, age 62, calls to complain of a severe headache. Which of his following statements most
concerns you?
A. "It hurts when I turn my head a specific way."
B. "It's the worst headache I've ever had."
C. "Nothing I do seems to help this constant ache."
D. "I'm so worried. Can you do a CT scan?" - Answer>>> B. "It's the worst headache I've ever
had."
A 68-year-old man presents with new onset of headaches. He describes the pain as bilateral
frontal to occipital and most severe when he arises in the morning and when coughing. He feels
much better by mid-afternoon. The history is most consistent with headache caused by:
A. vascular compromise.
B. increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
C. brain tumor.
D. tension-type with atypical geriatric presentation. - Answer>>> B. increased intracranial
pressure (ICP).
, A 45-year-old man experiences rapidly progressing migraine headaches that are accompanied by
significant GI upset. Appropriate acute headache (abortive) treatment includes all of the
following except:
A. injectable sumatriptan.
B. dihydroergotamine nasal spray.
C. oral naproxen sodium.
D. zolmitriptan nasal spray. - Answer>>> C. oral naproxen sodium.
The typical perpetrator in a domestic violence situation is one who:
A. Has a history of being a victim of abuse.
B. Has a criminal record.
C. Is involved in a new relationship.
D. Is on a lower socioeconomic scale. - Answer>>> A. Has a history of being a victim of abuse.
Which of the following statements about potential drug interactions with phenytoin is false?
A. Phenytoin increases theophylline clearance by increasing CYP 450 enzyme activity.
B. When taken with other highly protein-bound drugs, the free phenytoin concentration can
increase to toxic levels.
C. Phenytoin can increase the metabolic capacity of hepatic enzymes, thus leading to reduced
drug levels.
D. When phenytoin and theophylline are given together, the result is a higher concentration of
both drugs than when given separately. - Answer>>> D. When phenytoin and theophylline are
given together, the result is a higher concentration of both drugs than when given separately.
