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NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2026/2027 – Portage Learning Complete Final Examination | Actual Questions & Verified Answers | Comprehensive Pathophysiology Assessment | Pass Guarantee

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NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2026/2027 – Portage Learning Complete Final Examination | Actual Questions & Verified Answers | Comprehensive Pathophysiology Assessment | Pass Guarantee

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NURS 231
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Institución
NURS 231
Grado
NURS 231

Información del documento

Subido en
22 de enero de 2026
Número de páginas
31
Escrito en
2025/2026
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Examen
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NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2026/2027 – Portage
Learning Complete Final Examination | Actual Questions &
Verified Answers | Comprehensive Pathophysiology
Assessment | Pass Guarantee




1.​ A 68-year-old man with a 40 pack-year smoking history develops persistent
hypercapnia during an acute COPD exacerbation. Arterial blood gas shows pH
7.28, PaCO₂ 72 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 34 mEq/L. Which cellular mechanism best
explains the concurrent increase in intracellular pH of neurons that contributes to
his somnolence?​
A. Hypercapnia stimulates carbonic-anhydrase-mediated formation of
extracellular H₂CO₃, which rapidly crosses the neuronal membrane and
dissociates, buffering intracellular acid.​
B. CO₂ diffuses freely into neurons; carbonic anhydrase forms H₂CO₃ → H⁺ +
HCO₃⁻; H⁺ is extruded via the Na⁺/H⁺ exchanger, leaving intracellular pH relatively
alkalemic.​
C. Elevated CO₂ directly inhibits H⁺-ATPase pumps, preventing acid
accumulation.​
D. Hypercapnia activates neuronal lactate transporters, removing lactic acid and
raising pH.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: CO₂ crosses membranes freely; intracellular carbonic anhydrase rapidly
forms H⁺ and HCO₃⁻. The Na⁺/H⁺ exchanger exports H⁺, partially correcting intracellular
acidosis and producing a relative intracellular alkalinization that depresses neuronal
excitability, producing somnolence. The other options either misstate the direction of
pump activity or invoke nonexistent mechanisms.

, 2.​ A 54-year-old woman with congestive heart failure (EF 30%) and poorly controlled
diabetes presents with fatigue and muscle cramps. Laboratory results: Na⁺ 129
mEq/L, K⁺ 3.2 mEq/L, osmolality 260 mOsm/kg. Which pathophysiologic process
is the primary driver of her hyponatremia?​
A. Osmotic diuresis from glycosuria causing isotonic fluid loss​
B. Non-osmotic vasopressin release due to decreased effective circulating
volume​
C. Aldosterone escape leading to renal sodium wasting​
D. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) from cardiac
cachexia

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Low EF reduces cardiac output, triggering arterial baroreceptor-mediated
ADH release despite hypo-osmolality. The resulting water retention dilutes serum
sodium. While SIADH can coexist, the dominant mechanism in hypotonic hyponatremia
with low osmolality is baroreceptor-mediated vasopressin release (a
"volume-appropriate" response). Glycosuria causes hypertonic losses and does not
lower osmolality.



3.​ A 26-year-old man with Crohn disease develops numbness and tingling in his
hands. Laboratory findings: Ca²⁺ 7.8 mg/dL, albumin 2.8 g/dL, Mg²⁺ 1.1 mg/dL,
iPTH 95 pg/mL (nl 10–65). Which intracellular signaling disruption best explains
his neurologic symptoms?​
A. Hypomagnesemia impairs Ca²⁺-sensing receptor activation, suppressing PTH
secretion.​
B. Low ionized calcium increases neuronal membrane sodium permeability,
lowering the threshold for action potentials.​
C. Hypocalcemia prolongs voltage-gated Na⁺ channel inactivation, increasing
excitability.​
D. Decreased serum Mg²⁺ blocks voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels, preventing
neurotransmitter release.

Correct Answer: C

,Rationale: Hypocalcemia (ionized) stabilizes Na⁺ channels, delaying inactivation and
causing spontaneous repetitive firing (paresthesias, tetany). Hypomagnesemia
aggravates this by inhibiting PTH end-organ response, but the primary defect is
Ca²⁺-mediated membrane irritability.



4.​ A 72-hour-old neonate born at 28 weeks’ gestation develops respiratory distress,
frothy secretions, and cyanosis. Chest X-ray shows a ground-glass appearance
with air bronchograms. Which cellular event underlies the pathologic changes in
the lungs?​
A. Apoptosis of type II pneumocytes leading to surfactant depletion​
B. Necrosis of bronchial epithelium causing protein-rich exudate​
C. Accumulation of neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) in small airways​
D. Fibrin deposition along alveolar basement membranes

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In respiratory distress syndrome, immature type II cells cannot synthesize
adequate surfactant; resultant alveolar collapse and transudation of plasma proteins
produce the ground-glass pattern. Surfactant deficiency, not necrosis or NETs, is
primary.



5.​ A 48-year-old woman with asthma on inhaled fluticasone develops dyspnea and
wheezing after stopping her inhaler abruptly. Bronchoscopy fluid shows elevated
IL-5 and eosinophils. Which adaptive immune process is most responsible for
this exacerbation?​
A. Th1-mediated macrophage activation releasing IFN-γ​
B. Th2 skewing with IgE-coated mast cell degranulation​
C. Th17 neutrophilic inflammation driven by IL-23​
D. T-regulatory cell suppression of eosinophil apoptosis

Correct Answer: B

, Rationale: Withdrawal of inhaled corticosteroid removes suppression of Th2 cytokines
(IL-4, IL-5, IL-13), promoting IgE synthesis and eosinophilic inflammation—the hallmark
of allergic asthma.



6.​ A 62-year-old man with a history of rheumatic fever presents with fatigue and
lower-extremity edema. Echocardiography reveals thickened mitral valve leaflets
with doming and a mean gradient of 8 mmHg. Which hemodynamic
consequence best explains his systemic findings?​
A. Diastolic dysfunction from impaired left ventricular filling​
B. Systolic dysfunction due to pressure overload​
C. Right ventricular volume overload from pulmonary regurgitation​
D. Reduced systemic vascular resistance from inflammatory cytokines

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Mitral stenosis impedes left atrial emptying, elevating left atrial pressure and
reducing ventricular preload. The ventricle is intrinsically normal; symptoms stem from
diastolic dysfunction and secondary pulmonary hypertension, not systolic failure.



7.​ A 34-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus develops sudden-onset
dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. D-dimer is markedly elevated, and CT
angiography shows bilateral segmental filling defects. Which endothelial
perturbation underlies her pulmonary embolism?​
A. Antiphospholipid antibody-mediated platelet activation and thrombin
generation​
B. Deficiency of protein C leading to unchecked factor Va activity​
C. Endothelial damage from immune-complex deposition activating factor XII​
D. High-titer anti-dsDNA promoting fibrinolysis inhibition

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Antiphospholipid antibodies (anticardiolipin, β2-glycoprotein-I) activate
endothelium and platelets, up-regulate tissue factor, and impair protein S, creating a
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